CompTIA A+ 220-1201 & 220-1202 Flashcards: Core 1 and Core 2
Review current CompTIA A+ V15 Core 1 and Core 2 objectives with original flashcards for hardware, networking, operating systems, security, commands, and troubleshooting.
About this deck
CompTIA A+ 220-1201 & 220-1202 Flashcards: Core 1 and Core 2
Review the current V15 knowledge behind both CompTIA A+ exams in one 520-card package: 270 cards for Core 1 and 250 for Core 2. The deck covers mobile devices, networking, hardware, virtualization, cloud concepts, operating systems, security, commands, software support, operational procedures, and troubleshooting.
What the cards practice
The cards connect technologies, components, protocols, commands, and common acronyms with their purposes and key behavior. Separate retrieval prompts also work in the useful opposite direction: a technician task or requirement points to the right tool, setting, command, connector, or protocol. Short support scenarios ask for a likely cause, the first useful check, or the next corrective action. Ordered workflows are practiced only when the order matters on the job.
The deck does not mechanically reverse every fact or turn every source bullet into a card. It leaves out low-value acronym production, giant list prompts, unstable click paths, advanced material beyond the V15 entry-level boundary, and near-duplicate wording made only to increase the count.
Learning order
Core 1 starts with mobile hardware and connections, then builds through networking, physical hardware, virtualization, and cloud concepts before applying them to hardware and network troubleshooting. Core 2 moves from operating-system foundations into tools, commands, configuration, security, software troubleshooting, and day-to-day support operations. Inside each topic, recognition comes before selection and short diagnosis. Related forward and reverse cards are kept apart so one prompt does not give away the next.
Labs and PBQs
Flashcards are useful for recall and compact scenario decisions. They do not reproduce hands-on labs, performance-based questions, live command output, or the pressure and ambiguity of the certification exams. Use a real machine, lab environment, and lawful practice tests alongside this deck for installation, configuration, repair, and PBQ-style work.
Scope, provenance, and reuse
The live CompTIA Core 1 and Core 2 V15 pages and the current version 4.0 objective PDFs were reviewed on September 1, 2026. Both PDFs were last modified on November 25, 2025. They were used only to check the exam version, domain boundaries, weighting, and technical scope. Common technical facts are explained in original language and organized for retrieval practice. Public overview pages from three study tools were compared only for structure and learner expectations; their cards, questions, examples, explanations, and course text were not drafting input.
The Common knowledge · CC0 1.0 label applies to the deck’s original prompts, answers, organization, metadata, and generated cover to the extent applicable rights exist. It does not claim ownership of technical facts, CompTIA names, or third-party source material.
This deck is independently authored and unofficial. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or sponsored by CompTIA, Inc., and it uses no CompTIA logo or official trade dress.
No CompTIA exam questions, answers, performance-based questions, mark schemes, or objective wording were copied.
Current official requirements: Core 1 V15 (220-1201), Core 1 objectives PDF, Core 2 V15 (220-1202), and Core 2 objectives PDF.
Cards in this deck
Card 1
Question
What is the safe response to a swollen mobile-device battery?
Answer
Power the device off, disconnect external power, and isolate it for approved battery service. Don't charge, puncture, press, or keep using the battery.
Card 2
Question
Which RAM form factor is common in serviceable laptops?
Answer
A SO-DIMM. Match its DDR generation, capacity support, and other platform requirements before installation.
Card 3
Question
What should you confirm before replacing laptop keys or a keyboard?
Answer
Confirm the model's replaceable unit and service procedure. Some keys are individually serviceable; other designs require the keyboard or full top case.
Card 4
Question
What protects data during a laptop HDD or SSD replacement?
Answer
A verified backup and migration plan. Also match the replacement drive's interface, form factor, and supported capacity.
Card 5
Question
How should tiny antenna leads be handled during wireless-card service?
Answer
Label their positions, lift each connector straight up with the proper tool, and reconnect it to the marked terminal. Pulling the wire can damage the lead.
Card 6
Question
Which built-in laptop components commonly provide physical privacy or identity checks?
Answer
Components such as fingerprint or facial-recognition hardware and near-field credential readers. Their firmware, drivers, permissions, and enrollment must all support the feature.
Card 7
Question
Why does Wi-Fi antenna placement matter after a laptop repair?
Answer
Correct routing and terminal placement preserve signal quality. A pinched cable, loose connector, or swapped main/aux lead can weaken wireless performance.
Card 8
Question
A replacement laptop camera has no image. What should you check before replacing it again?
Answer
Check its internal cable, privacy shutter or switch, firmware detection, driver, and app permission. A hardware replacement won't fix a blocked camera setting.
Card 9
Question
A built-in mobile-device microphone is silent. What should you check first?
Answer
Check the selected input, mute state, app permission, and microphone opening. Then inspect the internal connection if every app fails.
Card 10
Question
Why disconnect the internal battery before replacing laptop RAM, storage, or a display assembly?
Answer
To remove standby power from the board and reduce short-circuit risk. Follow the model's shutdown and battery-disconnection procedure.
Card 11
Question
What should guide any field replacement inside a thin mobile device?
Answer
The manufacturer's service instructions, warranty terms, and ESD precautions. Adhesives, hidden cables, and replaceable assemblies vary by model.
Card 12
Question
How do USB-C, microUSB, and miniUSB differ?
Answer
They are different connector shapes. USB-C is reversible; microUSB and miniUSB are older keyed designs, and none of the shapes alone guarantees a data speed.
Card 13
Question
What can a laptop docking station add through one host connection?
Answer
Power, displays, networking, storage, and peripheral ports. The host, dock, cable, and software must support the promised features.
Card 14
Question
What must match for a stylus to support pressure or precision input?
Answer
The stylus technology and the device's digitizer. A generic capacitive stylus may act like a finger but can't add unsupported active-pen features.
Card 15
Question
Which connector is associated with many older Apple mobile devices?
Answer
Lightning. Match the cable to the actual model because newer Apple devices may use USB-C.
Card 16
Question
How do a headset, external speaker, and webcam extend a mobile workstation?
Answer
A headset adds private audio input/output, a speaker adds room audio, and a webcam adds video input. Select each one in the app after connecting it.
Card 17
Question
How do a trackpad, drawing pad, and trackpoint differ?
Answer
A trackpad senses finger gestures, a drawing pad captures pen input, and a trackpoint moves the pointer from a small keyboard-mounted stick.
Card 18
Question
What is NFC commonly used for on a mobile device?
Answer
Very short-range exchanges such as tap-to-pay, credential reading, or quick pairing. Its short working distance supports deliberate tap-style use.
Card 19
Question
How is a port replicator different from a full docking station?
Answer
A port replicator mainly exposes additional connectors; a dock commonly adds broader capabilities such as charging, displays, or networking. Verify the product's actual feature list.
Card 20
Question
Which connection is the usual choice for nearby mobile headsets and keyboards?
Answer
Bluetooth. It provides short-range wireless accessory links with relatively low power use.
Card 21
Question
What does mobile tethering or hotspot mode do?
Answer
It shares the device's internet connection with another client, commonly over Wi-Fi, USB, or Bluetooth. The carrier plan may limit tethering or data use.
Card 22
Question
How do 3G, 4G, and 5G relate on a mobile device?
Answer
They are cellular network generations. Newer generations can offer more capacity or lower latency, but the device, SIM or eSIM, plan, coverage, and local network determine service.
Card 23
Question
What is the practical difference between a SIM and an eSIM?
Answer
A SIM is a removable identity module; an eSIM stores a carrier profile in embedded hardware. Both associate the device with cellular service.
Card 24
Question
What sequence pairs a Bluetooth accessory safely?
Answer
Enable Bluetooth, put the accessory in pairing mode, select the intended device, confirm any PIN or code, and test the connection.
Card 25
Question
How do GPS and cellular location services complement each other?
Answer
GPS derives position from satellites, while cellular and nearby-network data can speed or assist location. App permission and device settings control access.
Card 26
Question
Which radios should you check when a phone has neither local Wi-Fi nor wide-area data?
Answer
Check Wi-Fi and cellular data separately, along with airplane mode. One radio can be disabled while the other remains available.
Card 27
Question
What should you verify when adding mail to a mobile device?
Answer
Verify the account, credentials, incoming and outgoing server settings, security method, and network access. A correct password can't repair a wrong server setting.
Card 28
Question
A phone can browse on Wi-Fi but not through its hotspot. What should you check?
Answer
Check that hotspot service is enabled, cellular data works, the plan permits tethering, and the client has the correct hotspot password.
Card 29
Question
How should you test a newly configured mobile connection?
Answer
Test the intended path and service: join the correct network or carrier, verify addressing or signal, then open the required app or destination.
Card 30
Question
What does mobile device management provide?
Answer
Central enrollment, device configuration, policy enforcement, corporate-app deployment, inventory, and approved remote actions.
Card 31
Question
How do corporate-owned and BYOD management profiles usually differ?
Answer
Corporate-owned devices normally allow broader organizational control; BYOD profiles should isolate managed work data and respect the user's personal data under policy.
Card 32
Question
What should be checked when calendar, contacts, or business mail stops synchronizing?
Answer
Check connectivity, account sign-in, sync scope, device time, storage, and service status before removing the account.
Card 33
Question
Why do data caps matter to mobile synchronization?
Answer
Large mail, cloud-storage, or app sync jobs can consume metered cellular data. Choose what syncs and whether Wi-Fi is required.
Card 34
Question
When is an MDM remote wipe appropriate?
Answer
When policy authorizes removal of protected data from a lost, stolen, retired, or reassigned device. Confirm the exact device and wipe scope first.
Card 35
Question
What is the point of separating corporate apps and data on a personal phone?
Answer
It lets the organization enforce work controls and remove managed data without treating the user's whole device as corporate property.
Card 36
Question
How do TCP and UDP differ?
Answer
TCP provides connection-oriented, ordered, acknowledged delivery; UDP sends low-overhead datagrams without built-in ordering or retransmission.
Card 37
Question
Which ports are associated with classic FTP?
Answer
TCP 21 carries control traffic, and TCP 20 is the traditional active-mode data port. FTP doesn't encrypt credentials or content by itself.
Card 38
Question
Which default port does SSH use, and what does it provide?
Answer
TCP 22. SSH provides encrypted remote command-line access and related secure services.
Card 39
Question
Which default port is traditionally used for SMTP server-to-server relay?
Answer
TCP 25. Mail clients commonly submit outgoing mail through a separate authenticated service.
Card 40
Question
Which port does DNS use?
Answer
Port 53: usually UDP for ordinary queries and TCP when the response or operation requires it.
Card 41
Question
Which ports carry DHCP client and server traffic?
Answer
UDP 68 for the client and UDP 67 for the server. A new client can broadcast before it has an address.
Card 42
Question
Which ports distinguish HTTP from HTTPS?
Answer
HTTP normally uses TCP 80; HTTPS normally uses TCP 443 and protects the session with TLS.
Card 43
Question
Which default port does POP3 use without TLS?
Answer
TCP 110. POP3 commonly downloads messages rather than synchronizing server-side folders like IMAP.
Card 44
Question
Which ports are associated with NetBIOS over TCP/IP?
Answer
Ports 137–139. Name service commonly uses 137, datagram service 138, and session service TCP 139.
Card 45
Question
Which default port does LDAP use?
Answer
Port 389, commonly TCP. LDAP provides directory queries and updates; protect credentials with an approved secure configuration.
Card 46
Question
Which default port does SMB/CIFS commonly use?
Answer
TCP 445. SMB commonly carries file and printer sharing.
Card 47
Question
Which default port does RDP use?
Answer
TCP 3389. RDP provides remote graphical access to a Windows system.
Card 48
Question
Which default port does Telnet use, and why is it avoided on untrusted networks?
Answer
TCP 23. Telnet sends remote-terminal traffic without SSH's encryption.
Card 49
Question
Which default port does IMAP use without TLS?
Answer
TCP 143. IMAP keeps mailbox state and folders synchronized on the server.
Card 50
Question
How do common 802.11 families map to Wi-Fi bands?
Answer
802.11b/g use 2.4 GHz; 802.11a/ac use 5 GHz; 802.11n can use 2.4 or 5 GHz; 802.11ax can use 2.4 or 5 GHz, with Wi-Fi 6E extending it to 6 GHz.
Card 51
Question
What is the tradeoff when selecting a wider Wi-Fi channel?
Answer
A wider channel can carry more data but occupies more spectrum and may overlap more neighbors. Use a width that clients, regulations, and local conditions support.
Card 52
Question
What networking role does Bluetooth fill?
Answer
Short-range personal-area links for accessories and nearby devices. It trades range and throughput for convenience and relatively low power use.
Card 53
Question
How do the 2.4, 5, and 6 GHz Wi-Fi bands generally differ?
Answer
2.4 GHz usually reaches farther but is crowded; 5 GHz offers more capacity with less wall penetration; 6 GHz adds clean spectrum for compatible devices but typically has the shortest reach.
Card 54
Question
How does NFC differ from general-purpose Wi-Fi?
Answer
NFC handles deliberate, very short-range exchanges; Wi-Fi provides a longer-range network connection with much higher throughput.
Card 55
Question
What should guide Wi-Fi channel selection?
Answer
Local regulations, a spectrum or Wi-Fi survey, channel width, band support, interference, and neighboring use. Choose from measured conditions, then retest where users work.
Card 56
Question
What is RFID used for?
Answer
Identifying or tracking tagged objects by radio. Readers can work with passive or powered tags at ranges set by the RFID system.
Card 57
Question
What distinguishes Wi-Fi 6E from ordinary Wi-Fi 6 operation?
Answer
Wi-Fi 6E permits compatible 802.11ax devices to use the 6 GHz band. Both the client and access point must support that band.
Card 58
Question
How do DNS and DHCP server roles differ?
Answer
DNS resolves names to records; DHCP leases IP configuration such as an address, mask, gateway, and DNS servers.
Card 59
Question
How do file and print servers centralize shared resources?
Answer
A file server hosts shared data and permissions; a print server manages printer queues, drivers, and access.
Card 60
Question
How do mail and web servers differ?
Answer
A mail server transfers or stores messages; a web server returns site or application content over HTTP or HTTPS.
Card 61
Question
Why would a network use both syslog and NTP servers?
Answer
Syslog centralizes event messages, while NTP aligns device clocks so those events have comparable timestamps.
Card 62
Question
How do AAA and database servers differ?
Answer
An AAA server handles authentication, authorization, and accounting; a database server stores and queries structured application data.
Card 63
Question
How do a spam gateway and a proxy serve different traffic?
Answer
A spam gateway filters mail flow; a proxy relays client requests and may enforce filtering, logging, or caching for supported services.
Card 64
Question
How do a UTM appliance and a load balancer differ?
Answer
A UTM combines gateway security controls; a load balancer distributes requests across service instances for capacity or availability.
Card 65
Question
Why do legacy and embedded network systems need cautious support planning?
Answer
They may have fixed software, limited interfaces, or long service lives. Isolate them, preserve required compatibility, and change them only within vendor and operational constraints.
Card 66
Question
What does SCADA monitor or control?
Answer
Industrial processes and equipment. Availability and physical safety requirements belong in every support decision.
Card 67
Question
Why are IoT devices often placed on a separate network?
Answer
Segmentation limits what an outdated or compromised device can reach and makes its traffic easier to manage.
Card 68
Question
Match DNS A, AAAA, CNAME, and MX records to their jobs.
Answer
A maps a hostname to IPv4, AAAA maps it to IPv6, CNAME aliases one hostname to another, and MX identifies a domain's mail exchangers.
Card 69
Question
How do a DHCP scope and exclusion differ?
Answer
The scope defines the address pool and options DHCP can offer; an exclusion removes selected addresses from automatic leasing.
Card 70
Question
What does a VLAN create on switched infrastructure?
Answer
A logical Layer 2 broadcast domain. It separates traffic without requiring a different physical switch for every segment.
Card 71
Question
What does a VPN protect?
Answer
Traffic across an untrusted network by creating an authenticated encrypted tunnel. Endpoint security and resource permissions still matter.
Card 72
Question
How do DNS TXT records support SPF, DKIM, and DMARC?
Answer
TXT records publish mail-policy data: SPF lists authorized senders, DKIM exposes keys for signature checks, and DMARC sets alignment policy and reporting.
Card 73
Question
How do a DHCP lease and reservation differ?
Answer
A lease is a time-limited address assignment; a reservation consistently offers a chosen address to a specific client, usually by MAC address.
Card 74
Question
How do access and trunk switch ports handle VLANs?
Answer
An access port normally carries one endpoint VLAN; a trunk carries tagged traffic for multiple VLANs.
Card 75
Question
When would you choose a site-to-site VPN instead of a client VPN?
Answer
Choose site-to-site for a persistent protected link between networks; choose a client VPN for an individual endpoint connecting remotely.
Card 76
Question
How do routers and Ethernet switches differ?
Answer
A router forwards packets between IP networks; a switch forwards local frames using learned MAC-address locations.
Card 77
Question
What does a wireless access point do?
Answer
It bridges compatible wireless clients onto a wired LAN. Routing, DHCP, and internet access may come from other devices.
Card 78
Question
What is a patch panel's role?
Answer
It passively terminates and organizes permanent cable runs. Patch cords connect those runs to active equipment such as switches.
Card 79
Question
What is a firewall's core job?
Answer
It permits or blocks traffic according to security rules. Logs help explain why expected traffic was accepted or denied.
Card 80
Question
How do managed and unmanaged switches differ?
Answer
A managed switch exposes configuration and monitoring such as VLANs; an unmanaged switch provides basic switching with little or no administration.
Card 81
Question
How can PoE be supplied, and what must match?
Answer
A PoE switch or injector can supply it. The source standard, powered device, cable, per-port state, and total power budget must be compatible.
Card 82
Question
Match cable modem, DSL modem, ONT, and NIC to their access roles.
Answer
Cable and DSL modems terminate coax and telephone-copper services; an ONT terminates provider fiber; a NIC connects the host and carries its physical MAC address.
Card 83
Question
How do private and public IPv4 addresses differ?
Answer
Private ranges are used inside networks and aren't routed on the public internet; a public address is globally routable when assigned. NAT often translates between them.
Card 84
Question
What does a 169.254.x.x IPv4 address usually indicate?
Answer
APIPA self-assignment after the host failed to obtain DHCP configuration. Check the link and path to DHCP.
Card 85
Question
When should a SOHO device use static rather than dynamic IP configuration?
Answer
Use static or reserved addressing when a predictable endpoint is required; use DHCP for ordinary clients that can accept leased settings.
Card 86
Question
What does an IPv4 subnet mask tell a host?
Answer
Which address bits identify the local network. The host uses it to decide whether to send directly or through a gateway.
Card 87
Question
How does IPv6 addressing differ from IPv4 addressing?
Answer
IPv6 uses 128-bit hexadecimal addresses; IPv4 uses 32-bit dotted-decimal addresses. Both still require correct local and routing configuration.
Card 88
Question
What does a default gateway provide?
Answer
The next hop for destinations outside the local subnet. It is normally the local router interface for that network.
Card 89
Question
How do fiber, cable, and DSL internet access differ?
Answer
Fiber carries light and offers high capacity; cable uses a shared coax access network; DSL carries broadband over telephone copper and depends strongly on line distance and quality.
Card 90
Question
How do PAN, LAN, and WLAN differ?
Answer
A PAN links one person's nearby devices, a LAN serves a local site, and a WLAN is the wireless form of a local-area network.
Card 91
Question
When are cellular, WISP, and satellite internet useful?
Answer
Cellular uses mobile coverage, a WISP uses a terrestrial provider radio link, and satellite reaches beyond many ground networks. Signal, latency, limits, and availability guide the choice.
Card 92
Question
How do MAN and WAN scopes differ?
Answer
A MAN links sites across a city or metropolitan area; a WAN spans larger geographic distances and joins multiple networks.
Card 93
Question
What is a storage area network?
Answer
A SAN is a dedicated network that presents shared block storage to servers. It is different from an ordinary user LAN or file share.
Card 94
Question
Which tools prepare and terminate a modular copper cable?
Answer
A cable stripper removes the jacket; a crimper attaches a compatible modular plug. Use the intended pinout, then test the cable.
Card 95
Question
How do a punchdown tool and cable tester support a permanent cable run?
Answer
The punchdown tool seats conductors into an IDC block; the tester checks continuity and wire-map faults after termination.
Card 96
Question
How do a toner probe and loopback plug answer different network questions?
Answer
A tone generator and probe identify a cable's far end; a loopback plug tests whether a port can transmit and receive through its own interface.
Card 97
Question
How do a Wi-Fi analyzer and network tap differ?
Answer
A Wi-Fi analyzer measures nearby wireless networks and channels; a network tap exposes a link's traffic to monitoring equipment without becoming the endpoint.
Card 98
Question
How do IPS, TN, and VA LCD panels generally differ?
Answer
IPS favors color consistency and viewing angles, TN favors fast response at low cost, and VA favors contrast. Actual panel quality still varies.
Card 99
Question
How do OLED and Mini-LED displays produce light?
Answer
OLED pixels emit their own light; Mini-LED is an LCD that uses many small backlight zones. OLED can show deep blacks, while Mini-LED can reach high brightness without organic pixels.
Card 100
Question
What does a touchscreen digitizer do?
Answer
It detects touch or compatible stylus position. The display creates the image; the digitizer reports input coordinates.
Card 101
Question
What does an inverter do in an older LCD backlight system?
Answer
It converts power for the fluorescent backlight. Modern LED-backlit panels use different driver electronics.
Card 102
Question
How do screen resolution and pixel density differ?
Answer
Resolution is the number of addressable pixels; pixel density is how tightly those pixels fit in a physical area. Both affect perceived detail.
Card 103
Question
What do refresh rate and color gamut describe?
Answer
Refresh rate is how often the image can update each second; color gamut is the range of colors the display can reproduce.
Card 104
Question
How do Cat 5e, Cat 6, and Cat 6A Ethernet cable capabilities compare?
Answer
Cat 5e commonly supports 1 Gb/s to 100 m; Cat 6 improves noise performance and can support 10 Gb/s on shorter runs; Cat 6A is designed for 10 Gb/s to 100 m.
Card 105
Question
How do HDMI and DisplayPort fit typical display setups?
Answer
Both carry digital video and audio. HDMI is common on TVs and consumer equipment; DisplayPort is common on PCs and monitors, with features set by the negotiated versions.
Card 106
Question
What is the practical difference between T568A and T568B terminations?
Answer
They place the green and orange pairs in different pin positions. Use one recognized scheme consistently at both plug and punchdown-block terminations for a normal straight-through run.
Card 107
Question
Which cable ratings suit EMI, outdoor burial, and air-handling spaces?
Answer
Unshielded twisted pair suits ordinary low-interference runs, shielded twisted pair helps with EMI, direct-burial cable resists outdoor moisture, and plenum-rated cable limits flame spread and smoke in plenum spaces.
Card 108
Question
Match RJ11, RJ45, and F-type connectors to common cabling.
Answer
RJ11 is commonly used for telephone wiring, the 8P8C connector called RJ45 for twisted-pair Ethernet, and F-type for threaded coax connections.
Card 109
Question
How do DVI and VGA differ?
Answer
DVI variants may carry digital video, analog video, or both; VGA carries analog video through a 15-pin D-sub connector.
Card 110
Question
How do single-mode and multimode fiber differ, and which connectors may terminate them?
Answer
Single-mode uses a small core for long links; multimode uses a larger core for shorter links. ST, SC, and LC are connector styles that must match the link hardware and fiber type.
Card 111
Question
What should you infer from USB 2.0, USB 3.x, microUSB, miniUSB, USB-C, and Lightning labels?
Answer
USB 2.0 and 3.x describe protocol capabilities. MicroUSB, miniUSB, and USB-C are USB connector families; Lightning is a separate Apple connector. Plug shape alone doesn't guarantee speed or video support.
Card 112
Question
How do SATA, eSATA, and Molex relate to storage connections?
Answer
SATA carries internal drive data, eSATA extends SATA to an external connector, and a Molex plug is a legacy power connector. Data and power paths are separate.
Card 113
Question
Which legacy peripheral link commonly uses a DB9 connector?
Answer
A serial connection such as RS-232. It sends data sequentially and is still used for some console and industrial equipment.
Card 114
Question
When does a cable adapter need active electronics?
Answer
When the source and destination use different signaling, not just different plug shapes. A passive adapter only changes compatible wiring; an active adapter converts the signal.
Card 115
Question
Where are DIMM and SO-DIMM modules normally used?
Answer
Full-size DIMMs normally fit desktop or server boards; shorter SO-DIMMs fit many laptops and compact systems.
Card 116
Question
Why doesn't every USB-C cable provide Thunderbolt or display output?
Answer
USB-C names the connector. Thunderbolt, USB speed, charging level, and video alternate modes require matching support from the port, cable, and device.
Card 117
Question
Can one DDR memory generation be installed in another generation's slot?
Answer
No. DDR generations use different electrical designs and keying, so the module must match the motherboard.
Card 118
Question
How does ECC RAM differ from non-ECC RAM?
Answer
ECC can detect and correct certain memory errors; non-ECC lacks that protection. The CPU and motherboard must support ECC.
Card 119
Question
What does a dual- or multi-channel memory configuration require?
Answer
Compatible modules installed in the motherboard's paired channel slots. The board manual identifies the correct population order.
Card 120
Question
What happens when compatible RAM modules have different rated speeds?
Answer
They normally operate at a mutually supported speed, often the slower module's rate. Platform and firmware limits can reduce it further.
Card 121
Question
What limits a system's usable RAM capacity?
Answer
The CPU memory controller, motherboard, firmware, operating system, and supported module layout. Check the platform documentation before buying modules.
Card 122
Question
How do RAID 0 and RAID 1 trade capacity for protection?
Answer
RAID 0 stripes data for capacity and performance but has no redundancy; RAID 1 mirrors data and can survive one member failure.
Card 123
Question
How do 2.5-inch and 3.5-inch HDDs, spindle speed, and workload affect a drive choice?
Answer
The bay and interface must fit the form factor; faster spindle speed can improve access but adds heat, noise, and power use. Workload and capacity still matter.
Card 124
Question
How do SATA SSDs and NVMe SSDs communicate?
Answer
A SATA SSD uses the SATA storage interface; an NVMe SSD uses PCIe for lower-latency flash access. The slot and firmware must support the selected signaling.
Card 125
Question
Which removable media suit portable files, camera storage, and optical archives?
Answer
USB flash drives suit general transfers, memory cards suit compact devices such as cameras, and optical discs require a drive that supports the disc format.
Card 126
Question
How do RAID 5 and RAID 6 differ?
Answer
RAID 5 needs at least three drives and tolerates one member failure; RAID 6 needs at least four and uses dual parity to tolerate two.
Card 127
Question
What distinguishes SAS from SATA storage?
Answer
SAS is an enterprise-oriented serial SCSI interface with features such as dual-port support; SATA is common in client storage. The drive and controller interface must match.
Card 128
Question
How do M.2 and mSATA differ?
Answer
M.2 is a keyed form-factor family that may carry SATA or PCIe/NVMe; mSATA is an older compact form factor that carries SATA signaling.
Card 129
Question
When is an SSD preferable to an HDD?
Answer
Choose an SSD for low-latency, shock-resistant storage; choose an HDD when low-cost bulk capacity matters more. Neither removes the need for backup.
Card 130
Question
How do ATX, microATX, and Mini-ITX motherboard form factors affect a build?
Answer
They differ in board size, mounting layout, and typical expansion capacity. The case, power supply, and required slots must fit the board.
Card 131
Question
Match common motherboard connectors to their jobs.
Answer
PCI and PCIe host expansion cards; SATA and eSATA carry storage data; M.2 hosts compact devices; headers connect case features; power connectors feed the board and CPU.
Card 132
Question
What does RAID 10 provide?
Answer
Striping across mirrored pairs, normally using at least four drives. It combines performance with redundancy, but surviving multiple failures depends on which members fail.
Card 133
Question
What must match before installing an AMD or Intel CPU?
Answer
The CPU socket, chipset, firmware, and thermal design must support that exact processor. Multisocket boards also require a supported processor combination.
Card 134
Question
Which UEFI settings commonly control startup and hardware access?
Answer
Boot order, removable-media boot, USB permissions, fan behavior, temperature monitoring, and virtualization support. Change only the setting required for the task.
Card 135
Question
How do Secure Boot, a boot password, and a firmware setup password differ?
Answer
Secure Boot verifies trusted boot software; a boot password challenges startup; a setup password restricts firmware changes.
Card 136
Question
How do x86, x64, and ARM CPU architectures affect compatibility?
Answer
They use different instruction-set families; x86 is 32-bit, x64 extends that family to 64-bit, and ARM uses a RISC design. The OS and applications need compatible builds.
Card 137
Question
What does adding CPU cores improve?
Answer
Parallel work when software can use the cores. Architecture, clock speed, cooling, memory, and workload still shape performance.
Card 138
Question
Match sound, video, capture, and network expansion cards to their jobs.
Answer
Sound cards handle audio I/O, video cards render graphics, capture cards ingest external media signals, and NICs add network connectivity.
Card 139
Question
How do a TPM and HSM support encryption differently?
Answer
A TPM is a system security chip for protected keys and platform measurements; an HSM is a dedicated device or service for controlled cryptographic key operations.
Card 140
Question
How do fans and heat sinks work together?
Answer
A heat sink spreads component heat across fins; fans move air across those fins and through the case.
Card 141
Question
Why are thermal paste or pads placed between a chip and cooler?
Answer
They fill microscopic gaps so heat transfers efficiently. Use the specified material and amount.
Card 142
Question
What extra components does liquid CPU cooling add to diagnosis?
Answer
A pump, coolant path, radiator, fans, tubing, and seals. Verify mounting, flow, airflow, and leaks.
Card 143
Question
What hardware and firmware support may a hypervisor require?
Answer
A compatible CPU virtualization feature enabled in UEFI, plus enough memory, storage, networking, and security controls for its guests.
Card 144
Question
What must be checked when a PSU can receive 110–120 VAC or 220–240 VAC?
Answer
Its input range and selector behavior. Use the local mains range and never guess with a manual voltage switch.
Card 145
Question
What do the 3.3 V, 5 V, and 12 V PSU rails typically power?
Answer
They supply different component circuits: 3.3 V and 5 V serve logic and peripherals, while 12 V commonly feeds CPU/GPU regulators, motors, and fans.
Card 146
Question
What does a 20+4-pin ATX connector power?
Answer
The motherboard's main input. The CPU normally needs a separate 4- or 8-pin EPS-style connection.
Card 147
Question
How should PSU wattage be chosen?
Answer
Add the system's realistic peak demand and sensible headroom, then confirm connector, rail, and quality requirements. A large wattage label alone doesn't prove suitability.
Card 148
Question
What is the advantage and main caution of a modular PSU?
Answer
Detachable cables reduce clutter, but only cables approved for that exact PSU should be used. Modular pinouts aren't universally interchangeable.
Card 149
Question
What does a redundant power supply provide?
Answer
Two or more power modules so one can fail without immediately stopping the system. Redundancy still needs correct capacity and monitoring.
Card 150
Question
Why does PSU efficiency matter?
Answer
Higher efficiency wastes less input power as heat at a given load. Efficiency certification doesn't replace checks for electrical quality, capacity, or connectors.
Card 151
Question
How does a laser printer create and fix an image?
Answer
It forms an electrostatic image, applies toner, and bonds the toner with a heated fuser. Toner, drum, transfer, and fuser parts all affect output.
Card 152
Question
What should be checked when unboxing and placing a multifunction printer?
Answer
Remove shipping locks, allow service clearance and ventilation, match power and network access, load supported media, and choose a stable location.
Card 153
Question
How do PCL and PostScript printer drivers differ?
Answer
PCL is common for fast office output and can vary by device; PostScript describes pages in a device-independent way that suits complex graphics. Use the printer's supported driver.
Card 154
Question
What should be verified when choosing USB, Ethernet, or Wi-Fi for a printer?
Answer
Verify the intended users, cable or signal path, addressing, security, firmware, and driver support. USB serves a local host; network links serve reachable clients.
Card 155
Question
Which parts and maintenance tasks are typical for an inkjet printer?
Answer
Ink cartridges, printheads, pickup rollers, and feeders. Clean or align printheads, replace approved cartridges, clear jams, and service feed parts as needed.
Card 156
Question
How do printer sharing and a print server differ?
Answer
A printer share exposes a queue from a host; a print server centralizes queues, drivers, permissions, and management for many clients.
Card 157
Question
Which settings commonly change a print job's physical output?
Answer
Duplex, portrait or landscape orientation, paper tray and size, and quality. The application, driver, and device settings must agree.
Card 158
Question
Which controls protect a public or shared printer?
Answer
User authentication or badging, secure print release, appropriate permissions, and audit logs. They reduce abandoned sensitive output and trace approved use.
Card 159
Question
How does a direct thermal printer work and what maintenance does it need?
Answer
Heat darkens special thermal paper. Replace the paper correctly, clean the heating element and feed path, and remove debris.
Card 160
Question
Where can a network multifunction device send scans?
Answer
Common destinations are email, an SMB file share, or an approved cloud service. Configure credentials, permissions, addressing, and encryption for the destination.
Card 161
Question
When should you use an ADF instead of a flatbed scanner?
Answer
Use the automatic document feeder for stacks of loose pages; use the flatbed for fragile, bound, thick, or single originals.
Card 162
Question
What does printer calibration correct?
Answer
Placement, density, alignment, or color registration. Run the maker's procedure after relevant part or image-quality changes.
Card 163
Question
Why does an impact printer suit multipart forms?
Answer
Pins strike an inked ribbon and physically transfer the mark through layered paper. The mechanism is noisy but can mark multiple copies.
Card 164
Question
What does a laser-printer maintenance kit commonly refresh?
Answer
Wear parts such as rollers and the fuser, as defined for that model. Replace depleted toner, install the kit at its service interval, calibrate when output shifts, and clean only through approved paths.
Card 165
Question
How do inkjet feed and printhead maintenance address different faults?
Answer
Roller and feeder service fixes paper movement; printhead cleaning or alignment fixes missing or misplaced ink. Use the symptom to choose the maintenance.
Card 166
Question
What is a virtual machine?
Answer
A software-defined computer with virtual CPU, memory, storage, and devices that runs a guest operating system on a host.
Card 167
Question
Where does a Type 1 hypervisor run?
Answer
Directly on the host hardware. This bare-metal design is common in servers and virtualization platforms.
Card 168
Question
Why use a VM as a sandbox or test environment?
Answer
It isolates a disposable environment from the main workload and makes repeatable testing easier. Isolation reduces risk but doesn't make untrusted code harmless.
Card 169
Question
Which VM resources must be sized against real host capacity?
Answer
vCPU, memory, storage space, and I/O. Overcommitting them can make several guests compete for the same hardware.
Card 170
Question
What does application virtualization do?
Answer
It packages, streams, or isolates an application from the base installation. It can simplify delivery or preserve some legacy applications without virtualizing a whole desktop.
Card 171
Question
Where does a Type 2 hypervisor run?
Answer
As an application on a host operating system. It is convenient for desktop labs, testing, and occasional guests.
Card 172
Question
Which security layers need attention on a virtualization host?
Answer
The host, hypervisor, management access, guest OSs, virtual networks, and images. Patch and isolate each layer according to its role.
Card 173
Question
What must be planned for VM networking?
Answer
Addressing, virtual switch or NAT mode, segmentation, bandwidth, and access controls. A guest still needs a deliberate path to required services.
Card 174
Question
What does VDI deliver?
Answer
Centrally hosted desktop sessions to remote clients. Compute and management stay in the data center or cloud rather than on each endpoint.
Card 175
Question
What must be planned for VM storage?
Answer
Capacity, performance, snapshots, backup, and failure location. A snapshot on the same datastore isn't a complete backup.
Card 176
Question
How does a container differ from a typical VM?
Answer
A container isolates an application while sharing the host kernel; a VM normally includes a full guest operating system.
Card 177
Question
How can virtualization support legacy or cross-platform workloads?
Answer
A compatible guest OS or virtualized application layer can preserve the required environment. CPU architecture, licenses, drivers, and hardware access still constrain compatibility.
Card 178
Question
What does a container image provide?
Answer
A repeatable application filesystem and configuration used to start containers. Running containers add temporary writable state unless storage is attached.
Card 179
Question
A virtualization option is unavailable. What should you verify?
Answer
Verify CPU and platform support, then enable the required virtualization feature in UEFI if policy allows. Also confirm that another hypervisor hasn't claimed it.
Card 180
Question
What defines a public cloud?
Answer
It is offered for open use by the general public and operated by a cloud provider. Its resources may be shared or dedicated, depending on the service.
Card 181
Question
What does IaaS provide?
Answer
Cloud compute, networking, and storage infrastructure. The customer usually manages the operating system, applications, identities, and data.
Card 182
Question
What is cloud elasticity?
Answer
The ability to add or remove resources as demand changes, automatically or on request.
Card 183
Question
What does metered cloud utilization measure?
Answer
Consumed resources such as compute time, storage, requests, or transferred data for reporting, limits, and billing.
Card 184
Question
What defines a private cloud?
Answer
Cloud infrastructure reserved for one organization. It can run on-site or be hosted and operated by a provider.
Card 185
Question
What does SaaS provide?
Answer
A complete provider-run application accessed as a service. The customer mainly manages users, settings, and data.
Card 186
Question
How do shared and dedicated cloud resources differ?
Answer
Shared resources serve multiple customers with logical isolation; dedicated resources are reserved for one customer. Either can appear in a provider's public-cloud offering.
Card 187
Question
What is high availability designed to reduce?
Answer
Service downtime from component or location failure through redundancy and failover.
Card 188
Question
What is a hybrid cloud?
Answer
A coordinated use of private-cloud and public-cloud environments, with workloads or data placed where their requirements fit.
Card 189
Question
What does PaaS provide?
Answer
A managed application platform and runtime. Developers deploy code while the provider manages more of the operating system and infrastructure.
Card 190
Question
What do cloud ingress and egress mean?
Answer
Ingress is data entering the cloud service; egress is data leaving it. Providers often meter them differently, and egress can create a notable cost.
Card 191
Question
What does cloud multitenancy mean?
Answer
Multiple customers use provider infrastructure while their workloads and data remain logically isolated.
Card 192
Question
What is a community cloud?
Answer
Cloud infrastructure reserved for organizations with shared requirements, such as a sector or policy need, rather than for unrestricted public use.
Card 193
Question
What does FaaS run?
Answer
Event-triggered functions without the customer managing servers directly. The provider manages the execution environment and scaling mechanics.
Card 194
Question
Does using a cloud service remove the customer's security duties?
Answer
No. Responsibility is shared: the provider protects its service layers, while the customer still manages assigned areas such as identities, settings, applications, and data.
Card 195
Question
What can happen when two offline devices edit the same cloud-synchronized file?
Answer
A synchronization conflict. Preserve both versions, let sync finish, compare the changes, and keep the intended content.
Card 196
Question
A PC stops at POST with a beep or status-light pattern. What should you do next?
Answer
Look up the exact pattern in the system or motherboard service documentation, then test the indicated component.
Card 197
Question
A desktop shows no lights or fan movement. Where should power diagnosis start?
Answer
At the outlet, power strip, cord, PSU input switch, and main internal power connections. Move from the source inward.
Card 198
Question
A PC shows a proprietary crash screen. What evidence should you collect first?
Answer
Record the stop code and recent hardware changes, then check memory, storage, drivers, temperature, and logs indicated by that code.
Card 199
Question
A PC powers on but the screen stays blank. What hardware checks come first?
Answer
Check display power and input, video cabling, GPU seating or power, and whether POST completes. Test one known-good display path at a time.
Card 200
Question
A computer is sluggish under ordinary work. Which hardware conditions should you check?
Answer
Check temperature and throttling, RAM pressure, storage health and free space, CPU load, and background I/O before replacing parts.
Card 201
Question
A PC becomes unstable as CPU temperature rises. What should you inspect?
Answer
Inspect fan operation, heat-sink mounting, thermal material, dust, filters, and case airflow. The CPU may throttle or shut down to protect itself.
Card 202
Question
You smell burning from a powered computer. What is the immediate action?
Answer
Shut it down and disconnect power. Don't keep testing until the damaged power or board component has been safely identified.
Card 203
Question
A PC shuts down randomly only during heavy GPU work. What should you test?
Answer
Test PSU capacity and condition, GPU power leads, temperature, and event logs. Peak load can expose weak power or cooling.
Card 204
Question
Applications crash randomly after new RAM is installed. What should you do?
Answer
Verify compatibility and slot placement, reseat the modules, and run a memory diagnostic. Test modules separately if needed.
Card 205
Question
A computer develops an unusual fan or grinding noise. What should you inspect?
Answer
Inspect fans, cables, pumps, drives, dust, and mounting points while the system is safely powered down when contact is possible.
Card 206
Question
What should you do after finding a swollen motherboard capacitor?
Answer
Disconnect power and replace the failed board or arrange qualified component service. Don't keep operating a board with a visibly failing capacitor.
Card 207
Question
A PC loses its date and time whenever it is unplugged. What is the likely cause?
Answer
A weak motherboard coin-cell battery. Replace it with the specified type and restore any lost firmware settings.
Card 208
Question
Firmware reports less RAM than is installed. What is the first corrective step?
Answer
Power down, follow ESD precautions, and reseat the modules in the recommended slots. Then test compatibility, sticks, and slots methodically.
Card 209
Question
A newly installed CPU isn't recognized even though it fits the socket. What should you verify?
Answer
Verify chipset and firmware support, CPU power, contact condition, seating, and cooling. Physical fit alone doesn't prove compatibility.
Card 210
Question
How can you isolate a motherboard, CPU, RAM, or PSU no-POST fault?
Answer
Reduce the system to minimum required hardware, confirm known-good power, and add components back one at a time.
Card 211
Question
A storage controller shows a warning LED or audible alarm. What should you do first?
Answer
Read the controller's exact status, preserve a current backup, and identify the affected drive or array before replacing anything.
Card 212
Question
A hard drive clicks or grinds while reads fail. What should you prioritize?
Answer
Stop unnecessary activity, preserve recoverable data, and replace the drive. Repeated testing can worsen a mechanical failure.
Card 213
Question
A PC reports no bootable device. Which checks come first?
Answer
Check firmware drive detection and boot order, then data and power connections. If the drive is detected, check its health before changing partitions.
Card 214
Question
Files are corrupt or missing after storage errors. What should you do?
Answer
Stop writes, preserve the affected media, restore from a verified backup when appropriate, and diagnose the drive, controller, memory, and filesystem cause.
Card 215
Question
A controller reports an array missing. What should you avoid?
Answer
Don't initialize or recreate it blindly. Check controller configuration, cabling, power, member detection, and the documented recovery path first.
Card 216
Question
A drive has unusually long read and write times. What should you inspect?
Answer
Inspect health data, errors, cable or link negotiation, free space, workload, temperature, and the storage interface.
Card 217
Question
What should you do after a S.M.A.R.T. failure warning?
Answer
Back up important data immediately and plan drive replacement. A health warning isn't something to clear and ignore.
Card 218
Question
Firmware sees a drive, but the operating system doesn't. What should you check?
Answer
Check OS storage management, drivers, bus support, partitions, and whether the disk is offline. Don't initialize a disk that may contain needed data.
Card 219
Question
A RAID array is degraded after a member fails. What is the safe response?
Answer
Confirm the failed member, verify backup, replace it through the controller's procedure, and monitor the rebuild. Don't remove a healthy member by guesswork.
Card 220
Question
What can cause low storage IOPS even when capacity is available?
Answer
A saturated or slow device, high queue depth, contention, thermal throttling, controller limits, or an unsuitable RAID layout.
Card 221
Question
A monitor reports no signal. What should you check first?
Answer
Check power, selected input, cable seating, adapter compatibility, and whether the computer is producing video.
Card 222
Question
A projector is dim or shuts down intermittently. What should you inspect?
Answer
Inspect the bulb or light source, filters, vents, temperature, brightness settings, room light, and service-life indicators.
Card 223
Question
Text looks fuzzy or the desktop doesn't fit the screen. Which settings should you verify?
Answer
Verify native resolution, scaling, aspect ratio, and any overscan setting. Then check cable and adapter quality.
Card 224
Question
How do display burn-in and a dead pixel differ?
Answer
Burn-in is persistent image retention across an area; a dead or stuck pixel is a fixed point defect. Confirm each with varied full-screen test images.
Card 225
Question
A display flashes or flickers at a new refresh rate. What should you check?
Answer
Check that the display, GPU, port, cable, resolution, and refresh rate combination is supported.
Card 226
Question
A projected image is trapezoidal or distorted. What should you adjust?
Answer
Correct projector position, angle, focus, and aspect ratio first; use keystone correction only as needed.
Card 227
Question
A monitor shows incorrect colors. How do you isolate the cause?
Answer
Check color settings and profiles, reseat or replace the cable, test another input or display, and inspect GPU output and drivers.
Card 228
Question
Video works over HDMI or DisplayPort, but audio doesn't. What should you check?
Answer
Check the OS playback device, application output, display volume, cable capability, and whether the adapter carries audio.
Card 229
Question
A laptop LCD shows a faint image only under a flashlight. Which area is likely failing?
Answer
The backlight or its power/driver path. The faint picture shows that image data still reaches the panel.
Card 230
Question
A phone battery drains much faster than usual. What should you check first?
Answer
Check battery health and recent screen, app, radio, and location use. Confirm the usage change before replacing hardware.
Card 231
Question
A phone has a broken screen but still receives notifications. What should guide the repair?
Answer
Back up accessible data, stop using sharp or exposed surfaces, and determine whether the glass, display, digitizer, or full assembly is replaceable.
Card 232
Question
A phone won't charge and its port looks damaged. What is the safe first test?
Answer
Inspect without metal tools, then try a known-good compatible cable and charger. Use wireless charging only if the device supports it and the battery is safe.
Card 233
Question
A phone has poor or no connectivity. What should you isolate?
Answer
Test Wi-Fi, cellular, and Bluetooth separately; check airplane mode, signal, account or SIM/eSIM state, and the specific network settings.
Card 234
Question
A battery is pushing a mobile-device case apart. What should you do?
Answer
Power it down, stop charging it, and arrange approved battery service. Don't press the case closed.
Card 235
Question
A mobile device gets wet. Why should you avoid powering or charging it?
Answer
Moisture can cause shorts and corrosion. Shut it down and follow the manufacturer's drying or service guidance.
Card 236
Question
Touch input drifts or misses one area. What should you check?
Answer
Check screen cleanliness and protectors, test calibration if supported, compare apps, and inspect the digitizer connection or damage.
Card 237
Question
A phone slows down and overheats during light use. What should you inspect?
Answer
Inspect battery health, storage pressure, updates, background apps, signal hunting, and possible malware. Stop use if heat is unsafe.
Card 238
Question
A mobile device shows pop-ups and heavy data use after an untrusted install. What should you suspect?
Answer
Malware or a harmful app. Disconnect as needed, preserve required evidence, remove it through the approved mobile-security process, and update the device.
Card 239
Question
A mobile device can't install a new application. What should you check?
Answer
Check free storage, OS and hardware compatibility, account or store access, network service, and MDM policy before bypassing any restriction.
Card 240
Question
An active stylus doesn't work, but finger touch does. What should you check?
Answer
Check stylus compatibility, charge or battery, pairing, tip, app support, and the device's active-digitizer settings.
Card 241
Question
Users report slow network speeds. What should you measure before changing hardware?
Answer
Measure negotiated link rate, throughput, utilization, errors, signal, channel use, and server or ISP performance to locate the bottleneck.
Card 242
Question
Wi-Fi disconnects intermittently in one area. What should you inspect?
Answer
Inspect signal strength, roaming, interference, channel plan, access-point placement, client drivers, and power-saving behavior.
Card 243
Question
A client reports limited connectivity. Which layers should you check in order?
Answer
Check physical or wireless link, IP address and mask, gateway, DHCP, DNS, and upstream reachability.
Card 244
Question
A user repeatedly fails network authentication. What should you verify?
Answer
Verify the account and credentials, time, certificate, authentication method, network policy, and whether the user or device is authorized.
Card 245
Question
Which tools help locate high latency?
Answer
Ping compares delay and loss; traceroute shows the path by hops. Test several destinations to separate a local, provider, and destination issue.
Card 246
Question
What signs point to external wireless interference?
Answer
Signal quality or throughput drops despite adequate strength, often near a device or at certain times. A spectrum or Wi-Fi analyzer helps confirm it.
Card 247
Question
A switch port repeatedly changes between up and down. What should you isolate?
Answer
Isolate the patch cable, wall run, endpoint NIC, and switch port. Review port logs and test the cable for a port-flapping cause.
Card 248
Question
A wired PC has no link light. Where should troubleshooting start?
Answer
At the cable, connector, NIC, and switch port. Changing IP settings can't repair a missing physical link.
Card 249
Question
VoIP sounds choppy even though average bandwidth is adequate. Which network condition should you measure?
Answer
Jitter, along with latency and packet loss. QoS and congestion control may help after the impaired path is identified.
Card 250
Question
Internet access drops for every local client, then returns. Where should you look?
Answer
Check the shared WAN path: the router's WAN link, modem or ONT, provider service, power, and logs. Independent failures across every local client at once are unlikely.
Card 251
Question
A host can reach an internet IP but not a website name. What is the likely fault?
Answer
DNS resolution. Check the configured resolver and test a direct lookup.
Card 252
Question
A PC receives a 169.254.x.x address. What should you test next?
Answer
Test its link and the path to DHCP. The APIPA address shows that normal lease configuration failed.
Card 253
Question
Two hosts report an address conflict. What should you inspect?
Answer
Inspect static assignments, DHCP reservations, and the lease scope for a duplicate IP address.
Card 254
Question
A PC on a new switch port can't reach its department resources. What should you verify?
Answer
Verify the access VLAN, then its routing and policy. A good physical link on the wrong VLAN still provides the wrong network access.
Card 255
Question
A PoE camera has network pairs but no power. What should you check?
Answer
Check the injector or switch standard, port state, total power budget, cable quality, and camera power requirement.
Card 256
Question
Only one PC lacks network access while nearby systems work. What should you compare?
Answer
Compare its link, IP settings, DNS, authentication, proxy or VPN state, and local firewall with a working peer.
Card 257
Question
A printed page has a line in the same place every time. What should you inspect?
Answer
Inspect the cartridge, printhead, drum, scanner glass, and approved cleaning path for contamination or damage, based on printer type.
Card 258
Question
A printer produces garbled characters. What should you verify?
Answer
Verify the driver and print language, cable or network path, firmware, and source document. Cancel the bad job before retrying.
Card 259
Question
A printer reports a paper jam. What is the safe response?
Answer
Stop the job, follow the documented paper path, remove paper in the specified direction, and check for scraps or damaged rollers.
Card 260
Question
Several print jobs remain pending after the printer recovers. What should you do?
Answer
Cancel failed jobs as appropriate, verify printer status and connectivity, restart the print service if needed, then send one small test page.
520 cards
CompTIA A+ 220-1201 & 220-1202 Flashcards: Core 1 and Core 2
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Card 261
Question
Printed pages are uniformly faded. What should you check?
Answer
Check toner or ink level, density or quality settings, cartridge condition, and the correct media setting.
Card 262
Question
A printer makes a grinding noise. What should you do?
Answer
Stop the job and inspect for jammed media, foreign objects, damaged gears, or a misseated cartridge or maintenance part.
Card 263
Question
Paper won't feed or several sheets feed together. Which parts should you inspect?
Answer
Inspect pickup rollers, the separation pad, feeder, paper condition, tray guides, and load limit.
Card 264
Question
A document prints in the wrong orientation. What should you check?
Answer
Check portrait or landscape settings in the application and driver, then confirm paper size and any device default.
Card 265
Question
What commonly causes speckles across printed pages?
Answer
Loose toner, ink contamination, a dirty print path, or a damaged cartridge or drum. Use the printer type and repeating pattern to narrow it.
Card 266
Question
A finisher won't staple or punch pages. What should you inspect?
Answer
Inspect the staple cartridge or jam, punch waste bin, finisher seating, supported paper, and driver job settings.
Card 267
Question
A printer doesn't recognize a loaded tray. What should you check?
Answer
Check tray seating, paper guides and size sensors, media settings, firmware, and driver configuration.
Card 268
Question
A network printer shows Ready but clients can't reach it. What should you test?
Answer
Test its link, IP configuration, address conflict, VLAN and routing path, print port, and firewall access.
Card 269
Question
A laser page shows a repeated faint image. Which area should you inspect?
Answer
Inspect the imaging drum and fuser for ghosting. The repeat distance can help the service guide identify the rotating part.
Card 270
Question
A print queue is frozen and won't process a test page. What should you do?
Answer
Clear the blocked job safely, restart the spooler or print service, verify disk and printer connectivity, then submit one small test.
Card 271
Question
Which desktop OS is the usual choice for broad business software and Active Directory integration?
Answer
Windows. It has the widest support for common business applications and native integration with Microsoft domain services.
Card 272
Question
When is a clean OS installation preferable to an in-place upgrade?
Answer
Choose a clean install when you need a fresh system or the existing installation is unreliable. It removes installed apps and settings, so back up user data first.
Card 273
Question
Which Windows command lists files and folders in the current directory?
Answer
dir. Usecdwhen you need to change the current directory.Card 274
Question
Which Windows tool gives a quick view of running processes, startup apps, users, services, and performance?
Answer
Task Manager. It is the first stop for a quick process or resource check.
Card 275
Question
What should you check before moving a user between desktop or mobile operating systems?
Answer
Check application, peripheral, file-format, and account compatibility first. A supported OS is still a bad fit if the user's required tools or data won't work on it.
Card 276
Question
How should you choose between a public and private Windows network profile?
Answer
Use Public on untrusted networks and Private only on trusted local networks. The profile changes discovery and firewall behavior.
Card 277
Question
Which Windows command shows the current IP configuration?
Answer
ipconfig. Add/allwhen you need details such as DHCP, DNS, gateway, and adapter addresses.Card 278
Question
What is the main benefit of deploying an OS image?
Answer
It applies a prepared, consistent system build to multiple devices. The image still needs compatible drivers, licensing, and post-deployment updates.
Card 279
Question
Which console should you open to investigate recorded application, security, or system errors?
Answer
Event Viewer. Filter by the relevant time, source, and event level instead of treating every warning as the cause.
Card 280
Question
Which Windows file system supports permissions, encryption, compression, and large local volumes?
Answer
NTFS. It is the standard Windows file system when you need access controls and other full desktop features.
Card 281
Question
Which Windows edition fits a basic home PC that does not need business management features?
Answer
Windows Home. It covers normal consumer use but lacks several business features found in Pro and Enterprise.
Card 282
Question
What do the common macOS application forms
.dmg,.pkg, and.apprepresent?Answer
A
.dmgis a mountable disk image, a.pkgruns an installer, and an.appis an application bundle. Remove software with its supported process, especially when it installed system components.Card 283
Question
Which boot approach lets a technician start an installer delivered by a deployment server?
Answer
Network boot, commonly PXE. The client firmware and network must support it, and the deployment service must be reachable.
Card 284
Question
Which command is the quickest basic test of IP reachability to another host?
Answer
ping. A failed ping is only a clue because the host or firewall may block echo traffic.Card 285
Question
Which Windows tool creates partitions, assigns drive letters, and initializes disks?
Answer
Disk Management. Confirm the disk and volume before making changes because some operations can destroy data.
Card 286
Question
What is safer than disabling Windows Firewall when one application is blocked?
Answer
Create the narrowest required application or port exception. Keep the firewall enabled and limit the rule to the needed profiles and traffic.
Card 287
Question
What should you compare before installing a demanding application?
Answer
Compare its OS, CPU, RAM, storage, graphics, VRAM, and peripheral requirements with the device. Check both minimum and practical workload needs.
Card 288
Question
Which Windows edition is the usual minimum for joining a business domain and hosting Remote Desktop?
Answer
Windows Pro. It also adds business features such as BitLocker management and Local Group Policy.
Card 289
Question
Which Windows command queries DNS records for a name?
Answer
nslookup. It helps distinguish name-resolution trouble from basic network reachability.Card 290
Question
Which macOS feature creates versioned backups for normal file and system recovery?
Answer
Time Machine. Confirm the backup destination is available and test that needed files can actually be restored.
Card 291
Question
What makes zero-touch deployment different from a normal remote installation?
Answer
Zero-touch deployment minimizes hands-on setup after the device starts. Policies, applications, and identity configuration are applied automatically.
Card 292
Question
When is exFAT usually a better removable-drive format than FAT32?
Answer
Use exFAT when the drive must move between modern operating systems and hold files larger than FAT32's 4 GB per-file limit.
Card 293
Question
Which values must be correct in a manual IPv4 client configuration?
Answer
The IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server settings must fit the network. A wrong value can break local or internet access.
Card 294
Question
How do FileVault and Keychain serve different security jobs on macOS?
Answer
FileVault encrypts the startup disk; Keychain stores passwords, certificates, and keys. Neither replaces good account security or backups.
Card 295
Question
What should you verify before booting an installer from USB media?
Answer
Verify the media is trusted and bootable, then select the correct temporary boot device. Also confirm the firmware mode matches the planned partition style.
Card 296
Question
Which Windows console is best for checking a device's driver status or hardware error code?
Answer
Device Manager. It shows detected hardware, driver details, disabled devices, and device error codes.
Card 297
Question
When is Windows Enterprise a better fit than Pro?
Answer
Use Enterprise for centrally managed organizations that need its additional security, deployment, and control features. It is licensed for organizational use rather than a typical retail PC.
Card 298
Question
How does a domain differ from a workgroup for Windows client management?
Answer
A domain provides centralized identity and policy; a workgroup manages accounts separately on each PC. Shared resources must match the chosen model.
Card 299
Question
Which command shows active network connections and listening ports on Windows?
Answer
netstat. Use its documented options to include process IDs or numeric addresses when needed.Card 300
Question
Which Windows tool runs a program or script on a trigger or schedule?
Answer
Task Scheduler. Use it for defined triggers such as a time, startup, sign-in, or event.
Card 301
Question
What must be assigned before a user can legally use many cloud productivity apps?
Answer
The correct service license. Installation alone does not grant an account access to licensed features.
Card 302
Question
What do
/Applications,/Users,/Library, and/Systemhold on macOS?Answer
They hold installed apps, user home folders, shared support data, and protected system components, respectively. A user's own Library sits inside that user's home folder.
Card 303
Question
What path format directly identifies a Windows network share?
Answer
A UNC path such as
\\server\share. A mapped drive gives that share a drive letter for convenience.Card 304
Question
Why can a 32-bit-only dependency block an otherwise capable 64-bit system?
Answer
The application may rely on an unsupported 32-bit component or driver. Confirm the complete dependency chain, not just the CPU architecture.
Card 305
Question
Which file systems are common on Linux desktops and servers?
Answer
ext4 and XFS. Both are Linux-native choices; support for features and repair tools depends on the distribution and workload.
Card 306
Question
What workload is Windows Pro for Workstations aimed at?
Answer
High-end professional hardware and demanding workloads. It adds support intended for workstation-class processors, memory, and storage features.
Card 307
Question
Why synchronize identity between an organization and a cloud productivity service?
Answer
It keeps user accounts and access aligned with the organization's identity source. Provisioning and removal can then follow the user's lifecycle.
Card 308
Question
When should you try a repair installation or recovery environment?
Answer
Use it when the current OS is damaged but preserving the installation is still reasonable. Back up recoverable data before making larger changes.
Card 309
Question
Which Windows command traces the router hops toward a destination?
Answer
tracert. Usepathpingwhen you also need sampled latency and loss information across the route.Card 310
Question
Why should mobile apps come from the platform's trusted store or an approved enterprise source?
Answer
Trusted sources provide stronger publisher, signing, and review checks. Sideloading from an unknown source raises the risk of a malicious or altered app.
Card 311
Question
What is distinctive about a Windows N edition?
Answer
It omits certain built-in media technologies. An application that depends on those components may need Microsoft's media feature package.
Card 312
Question
Which partition style is the normal choice for a modern UEFI system?
Answer
GPT. It supports modern UEFI booting, large disks, and more partitions than legacy MBR.
Card 313
Question
What should you confirm when setting up a cloud storage sync folder?
Answer
Confirm the account, selected folders, local disk impact, sharing rules, and whether files remain available offline.
Card 314
Question
When does a dedicated GPU matter more than integrated graphics?
Answer
It matters when the application requires more graphics performance or dedicated VRAM than the integrated GPU can provide.
Card 315
Question
How do
chmodandchowndiffer on Linux?Answer
chmodchanges permission bits;chownchanges file ownership. Verify the target and use elevated rights only when required.Card 316
Question
Which command checks a Windows volume's file-system structure for errors?
Answer
chkdsk. Review its options before requesting repairs because a repair may need exclusive access or a restart.Card 317
Question
What is the difference between partitioning and formatting a drive?
Answer
Partitioning defines logical regions on the drive; formatting creates a file system inside a partition. Both can affect existing data, so confirm the target first.
Card 318
Question
What does a client VPN connection provide?
Answer
It creates an encrypted path to a remote private network. The user still needs valid authentication and authorization for its resources.
Card 319
Question
Which Linux package managers are common on Debian-based and Fedora-based systems?
Answer
aptis common on Debian and Ubuntu;dnfis common on Fedora and related systems. Use authorizedsudoelevation for administrative package changes instead of routine root login.Card 320
Question
When should you use Performance Monitor instead of only Task Manager?
Answer
Use Performance Monitor when you need counters collected over time. Task Manager is better for a quick live snapshot.
Card 321
Question
Which Windows command-line tool manages disks, partitions, and volumes?
Answer
diskpart. Select and verify the exact disk before any destructive command.Card 322
Question
Which firmware and security components are central to Windows 11 hardware eligibility?
Answer
UEFI with Secure Boot capability and a supported TPM 2.0 are central requirements. The processor, RAM, and storage must also meet Microsoft's current requirements.
Card 323
Question
What should you verify before a mobile OS upgrade?
Answer
Check device support, free storage, battery or power, network access, app compatibility, and a current backup.
Card 324
Question
Why mark a Windows connection as metered?
Answer
It tells Windows to limit some background transfers on a connection with a data cap or high cost. Updates and cloud sync may behave differently.
Card 325
Question
Which file system is designed for current Apple storage devices?
Answer
APFS. It is Apple's modern file system for macOS and other Apple platforms.
Card 326
Question
Which Linux commands distinguish free filesystem space from a directory's space use?
Answer
dfreports filesystem free space;duestimates space used by files and directories. Use both when tracking down a full disk.Card 327
Question
What belongs in an OS upgrade preflight check?
Answer
Back up user data and settings, then verify hardware, applications, drivers, storage, licensing, and the supported upgrade path.
Card 328
Question
Why should Windows show known file extensions during support work?
Answer
Visible extensions make file types easier to verify and help expose misleading names such as
invoice.pdf.exe.Card 329
Question
What is the safest source for an application installer?
Answer
Use the vendor's trusted store or official download channel. Verify the publisher, signature, or published hash when available.
Card 330
Question
Which Windows command is built for reliable folder copying with restart and mirror options?
Answer
robocopy. Treat mirror or purge options carefully because they can delete destination files that are absent from the source.Card 331
Question
Why should you verify the supported Windows edition upgrade path before starting?
Answer
Not every source edition can upgrade directly to every target edition. An unsupported path may require a clean install instead.
Card 332
Question
Which Windows tool helps isolate startup problems by controlling boot and service options?
Answer
System Configuration (
msconfig). Use selective startup for diagnosis, then restore the intended configuration after testing.Card 333
Question
What should a technician test before rolling out cloud videoconferencing?
Answer
Test supported devices, camera and microphone permissions, network capacity, sign-in, and any organization policy.
Card 334
Question
What does an operating system reaching end of life mean for support?
Answer
The vendor no longer provides normal support or security updates. Plan a supported upgrade or replacement instead of treating the old system as safe indefinitely.
Card 335
Question
Which Windows command checks protected system files and replaces damaged copies?
Answer
sfc /scannow. Run it from an elevated terminal and review the result before deciding the next repair step.Card 336
Question
What is the purpose of a Microsoft Management Console snap-in?
Answer
It adds a focused administrative tool to an MMC console. Event Viewer, Local Users and Groups, and Certificate Manager are common examples.
Card 337
Question
What is the purpose of a mobile configuration profile?
Answer
It applies managed settings such as accounts, certificates, restrictions, and security rules. Install profiles only from an authorized administrator or trusted provider.
Card 338
Question
What is ReFS mainly designed to improve on supported Windows systems?
Answer
Storage resilience and data integrity. ReFS is useful for supported data workloads, but it is not a universal replacement for an NTFS Windows boot volume.
Card 339
Question
Why pilot a business application before a broad rollout?
Answer
A pilot exposes device, network, workflow, licensing, and compatibility effects on a small group before they reach everyone.
Card 340
Question
Why check sharing permissions before moving a document into a collaboration workspace?
Answer
The move may change who can read or edit it. Confirm the intended audience, link settings, ownership, and version history.
Card 341
Question
Which physical control stops a vehicle from driving close to a protected entrance?
Answer
Bollards. They create a physical barrier while still allowing pedestrian access.
Card 342
Question
What is the main sign that a message may be phishing?
Answer
It tries to push you into revealing data, opening a file, or following a link under false pretenses. Verify the request through a known channel.
Card 343
Question
What protects workstation data if a powered-off drive is stolen?
Answer
Data-at-rest encryption, such as BitLocker or FileVault. Store recovery keys through an approved process.
Card 344
Question
What is the first step in a suspected malware case?
Answer
Investigate and verify the symptoms. Record what happened and rule out ordinary faults before declaring the system infected.
Card 345
Question
What is the purpose of an access control vestibule?
Answer
It allows one controlled door to close before the next opens. This reduces tailgating into a secure area.
Card 346
Question
How do spear phishing and whaling differ from broad phishing?
Answer
Spear phishing targets a specific person or group; whaling targets senior or high-value people. Both use tailored context to appear credible.
Card 347
Question
Which password properties matter most for normal user accounts?
Answer
Use long, unique passwords and store them in an approved password manager. Complexity and expiration rules should follow current organization policy.
Card 348
Question
Why is a normal format not enough before transferring a drive with sensitive data?
Answer
A standard format mainly rebuilds file-system structures and may leave recoverable data. Use an approved wipe, secure erase, encryption-key destruction, or physical destruction method.
Card 349
Question
What makes a Trojan different from a computer virus?
Answer
A Trojan pretends to be legitimate so the user installs or runs it. A virus attaches its code to a host file or boot area and replicates when that code runs.
Card 350
Question
Why combine a badge reader with a biometric check at a sensitive door?
Answer
The combination verifies something the person has and something they are. It is stronger than either factor alone.
Card 351
Question
What does a BIOS or UEFI password protect?
Answer
It limits unauthorized firmware changes or startup access. It does not encrypt files on the drive.
Card 352
Question
Which phishing names apply to voice calls, text messages, and malicious QR codes?
Answer
Vishing uses voice, smishing uses SMS or messaging, and QR phishing uses a code to hide the destination. Verify the request before acting.
Card 353
Question
What should you do once a malware infection is reasonably confirmed?
Answer
Quarantine the device from networks and shared storage. Preserve any evidence required by policy while limiting further spread.
Card 354
Question
Which malware hides deeply in a system to preserve privileged access?
Answer
A rootkit. Because it can conceal processes or changes, trusted offline scanning or reimaging may be required.
Card 355
Question
What simple action protects an unattended signed-in workstation?
Answer
Lock the screen. Use an automatic timeout as a backup, and log off when the session is no longer needed.
Card 356
Question
What do cameras, guards, alarms, lighting, and motion sensors contribute to physical security?
Answer
They deter, detect, record, or respond to unauthorized activity. They work best as layers rather than a single control.
Card 357
Question
What attack occurs when someone watches a user enter sensitive information?
Answer
Shoulder surfing. Privacy screens, careful positioning, and awareness reduce the risk.
Card 358
Question
How should you verify a browser download before running it?
Answer
Use a trusted source, confirm the publisher or signature, and compare a published hash when available. A matching hash proves integrity, not that the publisher is trustworthy.
Card 359
Question
What does a computer virus need in order to spread?
Answer
A virus attaches to a host file or boot area and spreads when that infected code runs. A boot-sector virus targets startup data.
Card 360
Question
When is a secure erase preferable to physical destruction?
Answer
Use a verified secure erase when the storage device will be reused and the method fits its media type. Validate the result before reassignment.
Card 361
Question
How does tailgating differ from impersonation?
Answer
Tailgating follows an authorized person into a restricted area; impersonation claims a false identity to gain trust or access.
Card 362
Question
What does the principle of least privilege require?
Answer
Give an account only the access needed for its current job, for only as long as needed. Review and remove unnecessary rights.
Card 363
Question
What does spoofing change to make a message, host, or caller look trusted?
Answer
It forges identifying information such as an address, name, number, or source. Verify identity through a separate trusted signal.
Card 364
Question
Which Wi-Fi security protocol is the preferred modern choice when all devices support it?
Answer
WPA3. Use its strongest supported mode and a strong credential or enterprise authentication.
Card 365
Question
How does a DDoS attack differ from a DoS attack?
Answer
A DDoS attack uses many distributed sources; a DoS attack may come from one source. Both aim to exhaust availability.
Card 366
Question
What assumption drives a Zero Trust access decision?
Answer
No user, device, or network location is trusted automatically. Verify identity, device state, context, and authorization for each access decision.
Card 367
Question
Which physical methods make a hard drive unusable?
Answer
Approved shredding or drilling can destroy the platters and mechanism. Follow safety, environmental, and evidence-handling rules.
Card 368
Question
How do account lockout and account expiration solve different problems?
Answer
Lockout slows repeated failed sign-ins; expiration ends access after a defined date. Set both according to business policy.
Card 369
Question
Which malware categories secretly monitor a user's activity?
Answer
Spyware collects activity or data; a keylogger records input; stalkerware is used for covert surveillance of a person.
Card 370
Question
What wireless threat presents a convincing fake access point?
Answer
An evil twin. Users may connect to it because its network name resembles a trusted one.
Card 371
Question
What are the first security changes on a new SOHO router?
Answer
Change default administrator credentials, update firmware, and save a known-good configuration. Use a unique management password.
Card 372
Question
What should you do when a browser reports an invalid certificate on a sensitive site?
Answer
Stop and verify the address, system time, and certificate details. Do not bypass the warning for sign-in or payment data.
Card 373
Question
What does an access control list decide?
Answer
An ACL states which identities or traffic are allowed or denied on a resource. Keep entries specific and review inherited rules.
Card 374
Question
Which malware blocks access to data and demands payment?
Answer
Ransomware. Isolate the device quickly and recover from known-good backups rather than assuming payment will restore data.
Card 375
Question
How should router management access be exposed?
Answer
Allow it only from trusted interfaces and secure protocols, ideally from the local network. Place the router where unauthorized people cannot reset or replace it.
Card 376
Question
How should Windows restore points be handled during an approved malware-removal workflow?
Answer
Temporarily disable System Restore when the procedure calls for it, then re-enable it and create a clean restore point after remediation.
Card 377
Question
Which built-in accounts or credentials should be changed or disabled during setup?
Answer
Disable the guest account when unused and replace default administrator names or passwords where policy requires it. Never leave vendor defaults active.
Card 378
Question
What happens in an on-path attack?
Answer
The attacker positions themselves between communicating parties to observe or alter traffic. Strong certificate validation and encryption help prevent it.
Card 379
Question
How do browser patches and extension controls work together?
Answer
Patches fix browser flaws; extension controls reduce code from untrusted add-ons. Keep only approved, necessary extensions.
Card 380
Question
How should a guest wireless network be separated from trusted devices?
Answer
Use a separate guest network with strong encryption and client isolation. Do not grant it access to internal files or management interfaces.
Card 381
Question
Why disable AutoRun and unused services?
Answer
They remove automatic execution paths and unnecessary attack surface. Confirm a service is not required before disabling it.
Card 382
Question
Which storage media can degaussing sanitize?
Answer
Magnetic media such as compatible hard drives and tapes, but only with an approved degausser rated for that exact medium. Flash storage such as SSDs cannot be sanitized this way. A drive becoming unusable does not prove its data was sanitized; follow and validate the approved procedure.
Card 383
Question
Why update anti-malware tools before the main removal scan?
Answer
Current definitions and engines can recognize newer threats. Scan in a safer environment, such as Safe Mode or approved recovery media, when appropriate.
Card 384
Question
What makes authentication multifactor?
Answer
It uses factors from at least two different categories, such as a password plus a hardware token or biometric. Two passwords are still one factor type.
Card 385
Question
Which encryption choice is appropriate for a WPA2 network?
Answer
AES-based CCMP. Avoid selecting older TKIP just to keep obsolete clients connected.
Card 386
Question
What is the basic endpoint patching sequence?
Answer
Inventory supported systems, deploy tested OS and application updates, verify success, and remediate failures. Endpoint security definitions need updates too.
Card 387
Question
Why should daily work use a standard account instead of an administrator account?
Answer
A standard account limits what mistakes or malware can change. Elevate only the specific approved task through UAC or Run as administrator.
Card 388
Question
When is reimaging safer than continuing to clean an infected PC?
Answer
Reimage when trust cannot be restored, the malware is deeply embedded, or policy requires a known-good build. Restore only verified clean data.
Card 389
Question
Why is TKIP a poor choice for a new wireless network?
Answer
TKIP is a legacy protocol with known security limits. Replace incompatible clients and use WPA2-AES or WPA3.
Card 390
Question
When is incineration an acceptable data-destruction method?
Answer
Only through an authorized facility that can handle the material safely and meet legal and environmental requirements.
Card 391
Question
What does private browsing protect on a shared computer?
Answer
It reduces local history and cookie retention after the session. It does not hide activity from the network or service, so sign out and clear sensitive data as policy requires.
Card 392
Question
How does a dictionary attack differ from a general brute-force attack?
Answer
A dictionary attack tries likely words and known password patterns; brute force systematically tries possibilities. Long, unique passwords and rate limits make both harder.
Card 393
Question
How do SSO and SAML commonly work together?
Answer
SSO lets one sign-in reach multiple services; SAML can carry trusted authentication claims between an identity provider and a service.
Card 394
Question
Why disable UPnP and unused inbound ports when they are not required?
Answer
They can create unnecessary paths into the network. Open only the specific service and source access the business needs.
Card 395
Question
What symptom often points to an unauthorized cryptominer?
Answer
Unexplained sustained CPU or GPU use, heat, fan noise, or power consumption. Confirm the process before removal.
Card 396
Question
What should an outsourced destruction vendor provide?
Answer
A traceable certificate of destruction or recycling tied to the assets. Confirm the vendor and chain of custody before release.
Card 397
Question
When is just-in-time privileged access safer than a standing admin account?
Answer
It grants elevated rights only for an approved task and limited time. Privileged access management can control and record that elevation.
Card 398
Question
What follow-up checks belong after malware removal?
Answer
Run updated scans, patch the system, schedule ongoing scans and updates, and verify normal behavior before reconnecting fully.
Card 399
Question
Which input flaws commonly enable SQL injection and cross-site scripting?
Answer
SQL injection reaches a database through unsafe query input; XSS injects script into content a browser renders. Use parameterized queries for SQL and context-aware output encoding for browser content.
Card 400
Question
Which mobile controls help after a managed phone is lost?
Answer
A locator, remote lock or wipe, device encryption, and a current remote backup. Test enrollment before the device disappears.
Card 401
Question
Which control is designed to detect or block sensitive data from leaving approved boundaries?
Answer
Data loss prevention, or DLP. It applies rules to data in use, in motion, or at rest according to policy.
Card 402
Question
When is port forwarding appropriate on a small network?
Answer
Use it only for an approved service that must receive inbound traffic. Prefer a screened subnet or other isolation for exposed systems, and document the narrow rule.
Card 403
Question
Why can fileless malware be hard to detect?
Answer
It relies heavily on memory and legitimate system tools instead of leaving a normal executable on disk. Behavior monitoring is especially useful.
Card 404
Question
Why are unpatched, end-of-life, or unmanaged BYOD systems a security risk?
Answer
They may lack current fixes, controls, or visibility. Enforce support and access policy instead of assuming a connected device is safe.
Card 405
Question
What must guide disposal of batteries, storage devices, and electronics?
Answer
Applicable data-retention, privacy, environmental, and recycling rules. Record asset disposition according to policy.
Card 406
Question
What should an email security gateway do before a message reaches the user?
Answer
Filter suspicious senders, links, attachments, and spoofing signals. Users should still verify unusual requests through a known channel.
Card 407
Question
Which service commonly provides centralized authentication for enterprise Wi-Fi?
Answer
RADIUS. It validates users or devices against a central identity source; TACACS+ is more commonly associated with network-device administration.
Card 408
Question
How does MDM reduce risk on BYOD and corporate-owned mobile devices?
Answer
MDM applies profiles, screen-lock rules, updates, app controls, and remote actions. The policy should clearly separate company requirements from personal privacy.
Card 409
Question
How does a potentially unwanted program differ from clearly malicious malware?
Answer
A PUP may be installed with nominal consent but still adds unwanted behavior, such as aggressive ads or browser changes. Remove it through approved tools and review bundled installers.
Card 410
Question
What should the technician explain to the user after a malware incident?
Answer
Explain the likely entry point and practical prevention steps, such as safer links, trusted downloads, updates, and prompt reporting.
Card 411
Question
What is the first useful action after a Windows blue-screen crash?
Answer
Record the stop code and recent changes, then check relevant logs and dumps. Do not replace hardware from the blue screen alone.
Card 412
Question
What should you try first when one mobile app will not launch?
Answer
Force-close the app, reopen it, and check for an update. If the problem persists, restart the device and verify the app still supports the OS.
Card 413
Question
What should you do after finding an unapproved app already installed on a managed phone?
Answer
Document it and follow policy to block or remove it through the approved mobile-management process. Do not open it for testing; if compromise is plausible, contain the phone and escalate before wiping evidence.
Card 414
Question
What should you do if a possibly infected PC suddenly cannot reach the network?
Answer
Check ordinary link and IP status, but keep the PC isolated if compromise is plausible. Do not weaken the firewall just to restore access.
Card 415
Question
Where should you start when Windows feels broadly slow?
Answer
Check Task Manager for CPU, memory, disk, and startup pressure. Correlate the bottleneck with recent apps, updates, storage, and temperature.
Card 416
Question
How should you handle a mobile app that repeatedly crashes while in use?
Answer
Reproduce the trigger, free needed resources, update the app and OS, and clear supported app cache or reinstall after protecting its data.
Card 417
Question
Why should developer mode be disabled on a normal user's mobile device?
Answer
It can expose debugging, installation, or control paths that normal operation does not need. Enable it only for an authorized task and turn it off afterward.
Card 418
Question
What do unfamiliar security alerts on the Windows desktop require?
Answer
Verify which installed product or process created them. Capture the message and avoid clicking it until its source is trusted.
Card 419
Question
What should you try when Windows reaches recovery but not the normal desktop?
Answer
Use Startup Repair or Safe Mode to isolate the boot problem. Back up accessible data before risky repair steps.
Card 420
Question
What commonly blocks a mobile app update?
Answer
Low storage, poor connectivity, account or store issues, device policy, or OS incompatibility. Read the exact store error before changing settings.
Card 421
Question
What security boundary changes when a phone is rooted or jailbroken?
Answer
Platform protections and app isolation may be bypassed. Treat the device as noncompliant and restore it through an approved process.
Card 422
Question
How can you recognize a fake antivirus warning?
Answer
It often uses urgent claims, an unfamiliar brand, or a demand to click, call, or pay. Open the approved security tool directly instead of using the alert.
Card 423
Question
What does a firmware message saying no operating system was found suggest checking first?
Answer
Check whether the system drive is detected and first in the intended boot order. Then inspect its connection, partition, and boot data.
Card 424
Question
What should you verify when a mobile app will not install?
Answer
Verify the source, device and OS compatibility, free storage, account licensing, and management policy.
Card 425
Question
What clues suggest a mobile app is spoofing a legitimate one?
Answer
A mismatched publisher, unusual icon or name, excessive permissions, unexpected sign-in, or an unofficial source. Verify the real listing before entering credentials.
Card 426
Question
What can unexplained renamed or missing personal files indicate?
Answer
Malware, ransomware, account misuse, sync trouble, or storage failure are possible. Isolate the scope and preserve evidence before recovery attempts.
Card 427
Question
What evidence helps separate thermal shutdowns from power failures?
Answer
Review temperatures, fan operation, vents, power events, and whether the failure follows load. Test one likely cause at a time.
Card 428
Question
Where should you start with a generally slow phone or tablet?
Answer
Check free storage, active downloads, background apps, battery condition, and pending updates. Restart before considering a reset.
Card 429
Question
What should unexplained high mobile network traffic make you inspect?
Answer
Inspect per-app data use, recent installations, cloud sync, hotspots, and management alerts. Isolate the device if malicious traffic is plausible.
Card 430
Question
What does sudden inability to open many files suggest checking?
Answer
Check extensions, ransom notes, permissions, storage health, and backup status. Widespread encryption may indicate ransomware.
Card 431
Question
What should you inspect when a Windows service will not start?
Answer
Check its startup type, dependencies, logon account, permissions, and Event Viewer message. Fix the recorded cause rather than repeatedly forcing a start.
Card 432
Question
A mobile OS update downloads but fails verification or installation. What should you try before resetting the device?
Answer
Record the exact error and check free storage first. Then use the OS vendor's supported controls to remove the incomplete update and download a fresh copy with reliable power and a stable network connection; use recovery only if the normal updater still fails.
Card 433
Question
How can security trouble cause degraded mobile response time?
Answer
A malicious or unwanted app may consume CPU, storage, or network resources. Compare resource use with recent apps before removing anything.
Card 434
Question
Where should you investigate unwanted Windows notifications?
Answer
Check notification settings, browser site permissions, startup apps, and recently installed software. Remove the source rather than only muting the symptom.
Card 435
Question
How should you isolate an application that keeps crashing?
Answer
Confirm the scope, reproduce it, check logs, update the app, and test its plug-ins or profile. Reinstall only after preserving needed settings and data.
Card 436
Question
How do you find the likely cause of sudden mobile battery drain?
Answer
Review battery usage by app and system feature, then compare with recent updates, signal conditions, screen use, and battery health.
Card 437
Question
What should you check after an unexpected mobile data-limit notification?
Answer
Review per-app usage and the billing period, then inspect background sync, hotspot use, updates, and unknown apps.
Card 438
Question
Why can repeated OS update failures be a security clue?
Answer
Malware may block updates, though storage, network, or service faults are also common. Investigate the exact error and other symptoms before deciding.
Card 439
Question
What should a low-memory warning lead you to inspect?
Answer
Inspect memory pressure, runaway processes, page-file health, and workload requirements. Closing one app may help briefly but does not explain repeated warnings.
Card 440
Question
What is a useful first isolation step for random mobile reboots?
Answer
Remove or disable the most recent app or configuration change, update the OS, and check storage and temperature. Back up before a reset.
Card 441
Question
What security setting can cause limited mobile internet access even with a good signal?
Answer
A bad VPN, proxy, DNS, content-filtering, or management profile can restrict traffic. Compare the configuration with approved policy.
Card 442
Question
What is a useful first check for random browser pop-ups?
Answer
Inspect site-notification permissions, extensions, startup pages, and recently installed software. Do not click inside the pop-up.
Card 443
Question
What is a sensible first response to a USB controller resource warning?
Answer
Disconnect nonessential USB devices, remove unpowered hubs, and check Device Manager. Then update the controller or chipset driver if the evidence supports it.
Card 444
Question
What is the normal first fix for a Bluetooth pairing problem?
Answer
Confirm both devices are discoverable and compatible, then forget the old pairing and pair again. Check distance, battery, and interference.
Card 445
Question
What should you do if normal connectivity checks pass but a phone still has no internet after a suspicious app install?
Answer
Isolate the phone, remove or quarantine the suspicious app through the approved process, and inspect VPN, proxy, DNS, and profile changes.
Card 446
Question
When does a browser certificate warning point to more than a bad website?
Answer
Warnings across several known-good sites can indicate wrong system time, interception, a proxy, or a trust-store problem. Compare on a trusted network and device.
Card 447
Question
What should you do when instability begins right after a driver update?
Answer
Roll back or replace that driver with a known-good supported version. Confirm stability before changing another component.
Card 448
Question
What should you check when one phone cannot join a known Wi-Fi network?
Answer
Confirm the network and password, toggle Wi-Fi, forget and rejoin the network, then compare with another device before resetting network settings.
Card 449
Question
What commonly causes a sudden flood of ads across a mobile device?
Answer
Adware or a PUP is likely, especially after a recent install. Identify the responsible app instead of tapping the ads.
Card 450
Question
What settings should you inspect when browser searches redirect unexpectedly?
Answer
Inspect the default search provider, home page, extensions, proxy, DNS, and hosts file. Record unauthorized changes before correcting them.
Card 451
Question
How can you test whether a slow Windows sign-in is tied to one user profile?
Answer
Sign in with a known-good local profile and compare. Then inspect profile corruption, startup items, scripts, and redirected resources.
Card 452
Question
What should you check when NFC works only intermittently?
Answer
Confirm NFC is enabled, unlock the device if required, align the NFC areas closely, and remove a case that may block the signal.
Card 453
Question
How should you respond to a mobile pop-up claiming the device is infected?
Answer
Treat it as a likely fake security warning. Do not tap its button; close the source, inspect recent apps or browser data, and scan with approved tools.
Card 454
Question
What should you compare when mobile data fails but Wi-Fi works?
Answer
Check airplane mode, cellular enablement, signal, data limits, SIM or eSIM state, carrier settings, and any provider outage.
Card 455
Question
What is the priority when personal files appear to have leaked from a mobile device?
Answer
Contain the device and affected accounts, preserve relevant evidence, and follow the incident process. Revoke exposed sessions or credentials from a trusted device.
Card 456
Question
Why might a mobile screen refuse to rotate?
Answer
Rotation lock may be enabled, the app may not support that orientation, or a motion sensor may be stuck. Check the setting before hardware diagnosis.
Card 457
Question
What can unexpected mobile actions, permission prompts, or settings changes indicate?
Answer
An unauthorized or compromised app may be acting on the device. Review recent installs, permissions, profiles, and account activity.
Card 458
Question
What makes a browser extension suspicious?
Answer
An unknown publisher, broad permissions, forced installation, hidden controls, or behavior unrelated to its stated job. Remove it through policy and inspect related changes.
Card 459
Question
What should you verify when a Windows update repeatedly fails?
Answer
Check free space, restart state, network access, update history, and the specific error. Apply the vendor's targeted repair steps for that code.
Card 460
Question
When should you reset a mobile device during troubleshooting?
Answer
Reset only after narrower fixes fail and a current backup exists. Confirm account credentials and management enrollment needed for recovery.
Card 461
Question
What causes system time to drift repeatedly after shutdown?
Answer
A failing CMOS battery is one possibility; a bad time source or synchronization setting is another. Check when the drift occurs before replacing anything.
Card 462
Question
What PC settings can malware alter to reroute traffic?
Answer
Proxy, DNS, browser, and hosts-file settings are common targets. Compare them with the approved network configuration.
Card 463
Question
How can a clean boot help with a Windows startup problem?
Answer
It starts Windows with a reduced set of nonessential services and startup items. Re-enable items in groups to identify the conflict.
Card 464
Question
How should you troubleshoot a browser that has become much slower than the rest of the PC?
Answer
Test without unneeded extensions, clear only appropriate cache data, check browser tasks, and compare a clean profile. Scan if the behavior is suspicious.
Card 465
Question
What is the safest next step when several mobile security symptoms appear together?
Answer
Disconnect or contain the device, document the symptoms, and escalate through the approved security process. Avoid wiping evidence unless the response plan authorizes it.
Card 466
Question
Which details belong at the start of a support ticket?
Answer
Record the user, device, contact method, affected service, and a clear issue description. Add the time and business impact when relevant.
Card 467
Question
When is
sfc /scannowa useful Windows repair step?Answer
Use it when protected system files may be damaged. Run it elevated and follow the result instead of assuming it fixes every boot or application fault.
Card 468
Question
What should you do before running a repair that may change a failing Windows disk?
Answer
Protect recoverable data first, then check drive health and file-system evidence. A repair tool is not a substitute for replacing failing storage.
Card 469
Question
What is the right overall response to convincing PC security symptoms?
Answer
Contain the system, document evidence, follow the malware or incident procedure, and restore trust with approved tools or a known-good image.
Card 470
Question
What does a full backup contain?
Answer
A full backup copies all selected data in that backup set. It is simple to restore but usually takes the most time and space to create.
Card 471
Question
Where should a technician look for handling and disposal guidance for a chemical product?
Answer
Use its current Safety Data Sheet and local policy. Follow the listed protective, spill, storage, and disposal instructions.
Card 472
Question
What should a change request state before technical planning begins?
Answer
State the purpose, scope, change type, affected systems, owner, and desired date. A clear request makes impact and approval review possible.
Card 473
Question
What does active listening look like in a support conversation?
Answer
Let the customer finish, ask focused questions, and restate the problem to confirm understanding. Avoid interrupting or jumping to a diagnosis.
Card 474
Question
What does chain of custody record during an incident?
Answer
It records who collected, handled, transferred, stored, and accessed evidence, with dates and purpose. This supports integrity and accountability.
Card 475
Question
What makes a ticket issue description useful to another technician?
Answer
It states expected and actual behavior, exact symptoms, scope, timing, and reproducible steps without guesses presented as facts.
Card 476
Question
What does an incremental backup copy?
Answer
It copies data changed since the most recent backup of any type. Backup runs are small, but recovery may need the last full plus every later incremental.
Card 477
Question
How should a technician respond to an angry customer?
Answer
Stay calm, acknowledge the impact, clarify the facts, and explain realistic next steps. Do not argue, blame, or dismiss the concern.
Card 478
Question
Why does order of volatility matter when collecting incident evidence?
Answer
More temporary data can disappear first. Follow the response plan to capture volatile information before less volatile storage when authorized.
Card 479
Question
Which script type is native to traditional Windows batch command processing?
Answer
A
.batfile. VBScript uses.vbsfor older Windows automation; review either script before running it with elevated rights.Card 480
Question
How do ventilation and dust control affect equipment reliability?
Answer
Clear airflow removes heat; controlled dust cleanup prevents blocked vents and conductive buildup. Use equipment-safe compressed air or vacuums.
Card 481
Question
How should severity and escalation be recorded?
Answer
Tie severity to impact and urgency, then use the defined escalation level. Do not inflate it just to move the ticket faster.
Card 482
Question
Why create a forensic copy instead of investigating the original drive directly?
Answer
A verified copy preserves the original evidence and lets analysis proceed with less risk of alteration. Follow authorization and incident policy.
Card 483
Question
When is RDP a suitable remote-access choice?
Answer
Use RDP for an authorized Windows desktop session over a protected path. Limit exposed services, require strong authentication, and follow session policy.
Card 484
Question
How should an ESD strap be used during internal PC work?
Answer
Attach it to an approved ground point while working on powered-down equipment. Pair it with an ESD-safe work surface when available.
Card 485
Question
What protection does a UPS add beyond a surge suppressor?
Answer
A UPS provides temporary battery power and usually power conditioning, giving equipment time to ride through a brief outage or shut down safely.
Card 486
Question
What should progress and resolution notes contain?
Answer
Record tests, results, changes, timestamps, and the confirmed outcome. Another technician should be able to continue without repeating work.
Card 487
Question
Which data categories usually require stricter handling and retention rules?
Answer
Payment data, government identifiers, personally identifiable information, and healthcare data. Apply the relevant law, contract, and business policy.
Card 488
Question
Which support tasks can AI assist without making the final decision?
Answer
AI can help summarize tickets, draft user instructions, search approved knowledge, or suggest diagnostic paths. A technician must verify the result.
Card 489
Question
What is the first electrical-safety step before repairing a PC?
Answer
Shut it down and disconnect power. Follow the device's service procedure because some components can retain hazardous energy.
Card 490
Question
How do SSH and VNC differ for remote support?
Answer
SSH provides an encrypted command-line session; VNC shares a graphical desktop and needs its own secure transport and authentication configuration.
Card 491
Question
How should a technician set expectations for a repair?
Answer
Give a realistic timeline, explain options and dependencies, and send status updates when the estimate changes.
Card 492
Question
Which script type gives Windows administrators structured access to system management?
Answer
A PowerShell
.ps1script. Execution policy is not a malware boundary, so verify the source, signature, and contents.Card 493
Question
What does a differential backup copy?
Answer
It copies data changed since the last full backup. Recovery normally needs the last full and the latest differential.
Card 494
Question
Why do change plans need both a backup plan and a rollback plan?
Answer
The backup protects data; the rollback returns the service to its prior state if the change fails. Define triggers and responsible staff before implementation.
Card 495
Question
How should loose components be handled and stored?
Answer
Hold boards by the edges, avoid contacts, and place them in antistatic packaging on an ESD-safe surface.
Card 496
Question
Why monitor both temperature and humidity in an equipment room?
Answer
Excess heat shortens component life; very low humidity raises static risk, while high humidity can cause condensation or corrosion.
Card 497
Question
What is a synthetic full backup?
Answer
It combines a previous full backup with later backup data to create a new full on the backup system. The source does not need to resend every file.
Card 498
Question
How do an asset tag and a CMDB serve different support needs?
Answer
The asset tag identifies the physical item; the CMDB records its configuration and relationships. Keep assignment, warranty, and licensing data current.
Card 499
Question
What should a technician verify before installing licensed software?
Answer
Verify a valid license, permitted user or device scope, and any EULA or DRM limits. Personal, corporate, perpetual, and open-source licenses grant different rights.
Card 500
Question
Which script type is commonly used for shell automation on Linux and macOS?
Answer
A
.shshell script. Its interpreter, permissions, quoting, and environment determine how it runs.Card 501
Question
How do GFS rotation and the 3-2-1 backup rule differ?
Answer
GFS rotates daily, weekly, and monthly backup generations. The 3-2-1 rule keeps three copies on two different media/storage types, with one copy offsite. GFS organizes retention over time; 3-2-1 spreads copies across storage locations and failure modes.
Card 502
Question
Which personal protective steps matter for lifting or dusty repair work?
Answer
Use safe lifting technique and get help for heavy equipment; wear approved eye or breathing protection when the task creates those hazards.
Card 503
Question
What does a VPN add to a remote-management session?
Answer
It creates an encrypted network path to private resources. The remote tool still needs secure configuration, authentication, and least-privilege access.
Card 504
Question
What policy questions should come before using AI at work?
Answer
Check approved tools, allowed data, required disclosure, ownership rules, and whether the task permits AI assistance. Do not assume a public tool is approved.
Card 505
Question
Why should a technician avoid jargon when speaking with a customer?
Answer
Plain language helps the customer understand choices and give informed answers. Use a technical term only when it adds clarity, then explain it.
Card 506
Question
What is the value of sandbox testing and peer review before a change?
Answer
They expose technical mistakes and unexpected impact away from production. Record results and remaining risk.
Card 507
Question
What are practical entry-level uses for scripts in support work?
Answer
Scripts can collect information, remap drives, install approved apps, start updates, restart systems, or run backups consistently. Python
.pyand JavaScript.jsfiles are common choices when the environment supports them.Card 508
Question
What is the benefit and main risk of an RMM platform?
Answer
RMM can monitor and manage many endpoints centrally; compromise or misuse can reach many endpoints too. Protect the console with strong access controls, logging, and updates.
Card 509
Question
How should a technician handle a confident AI answer?
Answer
Verify it against trusted evidence. AI can hallucinate, carry bias, miss context, or present outdated information fluently.
Card 510
Question
How do surges, brownouts, and blackouts differ?
Answer
A surge is excess voltage, a brownout is reduced voltage, and a blackout is a loss of power. Match surge protection and UPS capacity to the equipment.
Card 511
Question
What must you review before running an unfamiliar support script?
Answer
Review its source, inputs, privileges, target systems, resource use, network actions, error handling, and rollback. A script can spread malware or change many systems quickly.
Card 512
Question
How do an NDA and an acceptable use policy serve different purposes?
Answer
An NDA restricts disclosure of protected information; an AUP defines permitted use of systems and data. Follow both along with incident and compliance rules.
Card 513
Question
When should a normal change wait even if the technical work is ready?
Answer
Wait for required approval and an allowed maintenance window. Respect change freezes unless the approved emergency process applies.
Card 514
Question
Which support document should guide a repeatable task with an agreed method?
Answer
Use the relevant SOP or checklist. Consult the SLA for service commitments and the knowledge base for reusable diagnosis or resolution guidance.
Card 515
Question
What should a technician do if arriving late is unavoidable?
Answer
Contact the customer promptly, give an honest revised time, and keep the new commitment. Document service provided and follow up as promised.
Card 516
Question
What safety problems does good cable management prevent?
Answer
It reduces trip hazards, blocked airflow, connector strain, and accidental disconnection. Keep cables clear of heat and emergency access.
Card 517
Question
How do you know a backup is usable?
Answer
Test restores on a defined schedule. Verify data integrity and practice both overwrite recovery and recovery to an alternative location.
Card 518
Question
What closes a well-managed change?
Answer
Verify the implementation, obtain required user acceptance, update documentation, and review the outcome. Trigger rollback if the defined failure criteria occur.
Card 519
Question
How should a technician handle private material visible on a customer's device?
Answer
View only what the task requires, avoid copying or discussing it, and follow privacy policy. Maintain professional appearance and conduct in the customer's environment.
Card 520
Question
What data boundary applies when prompting a public AI service?
Answer
Never send credentials or secrets to a public AI service. Keep private customer data, regulated data, proprietary code, and incident evidence out as well. An approved enterprise AI service is a separate case: use it only under the organization's data policy and contractual controls, and still never paste credentials or secrets.
520 cards
CompTIA A+ 220-1201 & 220-1202 Flashcards: Core 1 and Core 2
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