What is the safe response to a swollen mobile-device battery?

Power the device off, disconnect external power, and isolate it for approved battery service. Don't charge, puncture, press, or keep using the battery.

Which RAM form factor is common in serviceable laptops?

A SO-DIMM. Match its DDR generation, capacity support, and other platform requirements before installation.

What should you confirm before replacing laptop keys or a keyboard?

Confirm the model's replaceable unit and service procedure. Some keys are individually serviceable; other designs require the keyboard or full top case.

What protects data during a laptop HDD or SSD replacement?

A verified backup and migration plan. Also match the replacement drive's interface, form factor, and supported capacity.

How should tiny antenna leads be handled during wireless-card service?

Label their positions, lift each connector straight up with the proper tool, and reconnect it to the marked terminal. Pulling the wire can damage the lead.

Which built-in laptop components commonly provide physical privacy or identity checks?

Components such as fingerprint or facial-recognition hardware and near-field credential readers. Their firmware, drivers, permissions, and enrollment must all support the feature.

Why does Wi-Fi antenna placement matter after a laptop repair?

Correct routing and terminal placement preserve signal quality. A pinched cable, loose connector, or swapped main/aux lead can weaken wireless performance.

A replacement laptop camera has no image. What should you check before replacing it again?

Check its internal cable, privacy shutter or switch, firmware detection, driver, and app permission. A hardware replacement won't fix a blocked camera setting.

A built-in mobile-device microphone is silent. What should you check first?

Check the selected input, mute state, app permission, and microphone opening. Then inspect the internal connection if every app fails.

Why disconnect the internal battery before replacing laptop RAM, storage, or a display assembly?

To remove standby power from the board and reduce short-circuit risk. Follow the model's shutdown and battery-disconnection procedure.

What should guide any field replacement inside a thin mobile device?

The manufacturer's service instructions, warranty terms, and ESD precautions. Adhesives, hidden cables, and replaceable assemblies vary by model.

How do USB-C, microUSB, and miniUSB differ?

They are different connector shapes. USB-C is reversible; microUSB and miniUSB are older keyed designs, and none of the shapes alone guarantees a data speed.

What can a laptop docking station add through one host connection?

Power, displays, networking, storage, and peripheral ports. The host, dock, cable, and software must support the promised features.

What must match for a stylus to support pressure or precision input?

The stylus technology and the device's digitizer. A generic capacitive stylus may act like a finger but can't add unsupported active-pen features.

Which connector is associated with many older Apple mobile devices?

Lightning. Match the cable to the actual model because newer Apple devices may use USB-C.

How do a headset, external speaker, and webcam extend a mobile workstation?

A headset adds private audio input/output, a speaker adds room audio, and a webcam adds video input. Select each one in the app after connecting it.

How do a trackpad, drawing pad, and trackpoint differ?

A trackpad senses finger gestures, a drawing pad captures pen input, and a trackpoint moves the pointer from a small keyboard-mounted stick.

What is NFC commonly used for on a mobile device?

Very short-range exchanges such as tap-to-pay, credential reading, or quick pairing. Its short working distance supports deliberate tap-style use.

How is a port replicator different from a full docking station?

A port replicator mainly exposes additional connectors; a dock commonly adds broader capabilities such as charging, displays, or networking. Verify the product's actual feature list.

Which connection is the usual choice for nearby mobile headsets and keyboards?

Bluetooth. It provides short-range wireless accessory links with relatively low power use.

What does mobile tethering or hotspot mode do?

It shares the device's internet connection with another client, commonly over Wi-Fi, USB, or Bluetooth. The carrier plan may limit tethering or data use.

How do 3G, 4G, and 5G relate on a mobile device?

They are cellular network generations. Newer generations can offer more capacity or lower latency, but the device, SIM or eSIM, plan, coverage, and local network determine service.

What is the practical difference between a SIM and an eSIM?

A SIM is a removable identity module; an eSIM stores a carrier profile in embedded hardware. Both associate the device with cellular service.

What sequence pairs a Bluetooth accessory safely?

Enable Bluetooth, put the accessory in pairing mode, select the intended device, confirm any PIN or code, and test the connection.

How do GPS and cellular location services complement each other?

GPS derives position from satellites, while cellular and nearby-network data can speed or assist location. App permission and device settings control access.

Which radios should you check when a phone has neither local Wi-Fi nor wide-area data?

Check Wi-Fi and cellular data separately, along with airplane mode. One radio can be disabled while the other remains available.

What should you verify when adding mail to a mobile device?

Verify the account, credentials, incoming and outgoing server settings, security method, and network access. A correct password can't repair a wrong server setting.

A phone can browse on Wi-Fi but not through its hotspot. What should you check?

Check that hotspot service is enabled, cellular data works, the plan permits tethering, and the client has the correct hotspot password.

How should you test a newly configured mobile connection?

Test the intended path and service: join the correct network or carrier, verify addressing or signal, then open the required app or destination.

What does mobile device management provide?

Central enrollment, device configuration, policy enforcement, corporate-app deployment, inventory, and approved remote actions.

How do corporate-owned and BYOD management profiles usually differ?

Corporate-owned devices normally allow broader organizational control; BYOD profiles should isolate managed work data and respect the user's personal data under policy.

What should be checked when calendar, contacts, or business mail stops synchronizing?

Check connectivity, account sign-in, sync scope, device time, storage, and service status before removing the account.

Why do data caps matter to mobile synchronization?

Large mail, cloud-storage, or app sync jobs can consume metered cellular data. Choose what syncs and whether Wi-Fi is required.

When is an MDM remote wipe appropriate?

When policy authorizes removal of protected data from a lost, stolen, retired, or reassigned device. Confirm the exact device and wipe scope first.

What is the point of separating corporate apps and data on a personal phone?

It lets the organization enforce work controls and remove managed data without treating the user's whole device as corporate property.

How do TCP and UDP differ?

TCP provides connection-oriented, ordered, acknowledged delivery; UDP sends low-overhead datagrams without built-in ordering or retransmission.

Which ports are associated with classic FTP?

TCP 21 carries control traffic, and TCP 20 is the traditional active-mode data port. FTP doesn't encrypt credentials or content by itself.

Which default port does SSH use, and what does it provide?

TCP 22. SSH provides encrypted remote command-line access and related secure services.

Which default port is traditionally used for SMTP server-to-server relay?

TCP 25. Mail clients commonly submit outgoing mail through a separate authenticated service.

Which port does DNS use?

Port 53: usually UDP for ordinary queries and TCP when the response or operation requires it.

Which ports carry DHCP client and server traffic?

UDP 68 for the client and UDP 67 for the server. A new client can broadcast before it has an address.

Which ports distinguish HTTP from HTTPS?

HTTP normally uses TCP 80; HTTPS normally uses TCP 443 and protects the session with TLS.

Which default port does POP3 use without TLS?

TCP 110. POP3 commonly downloads messages rather than synchronizing server-side folders like IMAP.

Which ports are associated with NetBIOS over TCP/IP?

Ports 137–139. Name service commonly uses 137, datagram service 138, and session service TCP 139.

Which default port does LDAP use?

Port 389, commonly TCP. LDAP provides directory queries and updates; protect credentials with an approved secure configuration.

Which default port does SMB/CIFS commonly use?

TCP 445. SMB commonly carries file and printer sharing.

Which default port does RDP use?

TCP 3389. RDP provides remote graphical access to a Windows system.

Which default port does Telnet use, and why is it avoided on untrusted networks?

TCP 23. Telnet sends remote-terminal traffic without SSH's encryption.

Which default port does IMAP use without TLS?

TCP 143. IMAP keeps mailbox state and folders synchronized on the server.

How do common 802.11 families map to Wi-Fi bands?

802.11b/g use 2.4 GHz; 802.11a/ac use 5 GHz; 802.11n can use 2.4 or 5 GHz; 802.11ax can use 2.4 or 5 GHz, with Wi-Fi 6E extending it to 6 GHz.

What is the tradeoff when selecting a wider Wi-Fi channel?

A wider channel can carry more data but occupies more spectrum and may overlap more neighbors. Use a width that clients, regulations, and local conditions support.

CompTIA A+ 220-1201 & 220-1202 Flashcards: Core 1 and Core 2

Review current CompTIA A+ V15 Core 1 and Core 2 objectives with original flashcards for hardware, networking, operating systems, security, commands, and troubleshooting.

Von Open Study Contributor

Über dieses Lernkartenset

CompTIA A+ 220-1201 & 220-1202 Flashcards: Core 1 and Core 2

Review the current V15 knowledge behind both CompTIA A+ exams in one 520-card package: 270 cards for Core 1 and 250 for Core 2. The deck covers mobile devices, networking, hardware, virtualization, cloud concepts, operating systems, security, commands, software support, operational procedures, and troubleshooting.

What the cards practice

The cards connect technologies, components, protocols, commands, and common acronyms with their purposes and key behavior. Separate retrieval prompts also work in the useful opposite direction: a technician task or requirement points to the right tool, setting, command, connector, or protocol. Short support scenarios ask for a likely cause, the first useful check, or the next corrective action. Ordered workflows are practiced only when the order matters on the job.

The deck does not mechanically reverse every fact or turn every source bullet into a card. It leaves out low-value acronym production, giant list prompts, unstable click paths, advanced material beyond the V15 entry-level boundary, and near-duplicate wording made only to increase the count.

Learning order

Core 1 starts with mobile hardware and connections, then builds through networking, physical hardware, virtualization, and cloud concepts before applying them to hardware and network troubleshooting. Core 2 moves from operating-system foundations into tools, commands, configuration, security, software troubleshooting, and day-to-day support operations. Inside each topic, recognition comes before selection and short diagnosis. Related forward and reverse cards are kept apart so one prompt does not give away the next.

Labs and PBQs

Flashcards are useful for recall and compact scenario decisions. They do not reproduce hands-on labs, performance-based questions, live command output, or the pressure and ambiguity of the certification exams. Use a real machine, lab environment, and lawful practice tests alongside this deck for installation, configuration, repair, and PBQ-style work.

Scope, provenance, and reuse

The live CompTIA Core 1 and Core 2 V15 pages and the current version 4.0 objective PDFs were reviewed on September 1, 2026. Both PDFs were last modified on November 25, 2025. They were used only to check the exam version, domain boundaries, weighting, and technical scope. Common technical facts are explained in original language and organized for retrieval practice. Public overview pages from three study tools were compared only for structure and learner expectations; their cards, questions, examples, explanations, and course text were not drafting input.

The Common knowledge · CC0 1.0 label applies to the deck’s original prompts, answers, organization, metadata, and generated cover to the extent applicable rights exist. It does not claim ownership of technical facts, CompTIA names, or third-party source material.

This deck is independently authored and unofficial. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or sponsored by CompTIA, Inc., and it uses no CompTIA logo or official trade dress.

No CompTIA exam questions, answers, performance-based questions, mark schemes, or objective wording were copied.

Current official requirements: Core 1 V15 (220-1201), Core 1 objectives PDF, Core 2 V15 (220-1202), and Core 2 objectives PDF.

Karten in diesem Lernkartenset

Karte 1
Frage
What is the safe response to a swollen mobile-device battery?
Antwort
Power the device off, disconnect external power, and isolate it for approved battery service. Don't charge, puncture, press, or keep using the battery.
Karte 2
Frage
Which RAM form factor is common in serviceable laptops?
Antwort
A SO-DIMM. Match its DDR generation, capacity support, and other platform requirements before installation.
Karte 3
Frage
What should you confirm before replacing laptop keys or a keyboard?
Antwort
Confirm the model's replaceable unit and service procedure. Some keys are individually serviceable; other designs require the keyboard or full top case.
Karte 4
Frage
What protects data during a laptop HDD or SSD replacement?
Antwort
A verified backup and migration plan. Also match the replacement drive's interface, form factor, and supported capacity.
Karte 5
Frage
How should tiny antenna leads be handled during wireless-card service?
Antwort
Label their positions, lift each connector straight up with the proper tool, and reconnect it to the marked terminal. Pulling the wire can damage the lead.
Karte 6
Frage
Which built-in laptop components commonly provide physical privacy or identity checks?
Antwort
Components such as fingerprint or facial-recognition hardware and near-field credential readers. Their firmware, drivers, permissions, and enrollment must all support the feature.
Karte 7
Frage
Why does Wi-Fi antenna placement matter after a laptop repair?
Antwort
Correct routing and terminal placement preserve signal quality. A pinched cable, loose connector, or swapped main/aux lead can weaken wireless performance.
Karte 8
Frage
A replacement laptop camera has no image. What should you check before replacing it again?
Antwort
Check its internal cable, privacy shutter or switch, firmware detection, driver, and app permission. A hardware replacement won't fix a blocked camera setting.
Karte 9
Frage
A built-in mobile-device microphone is silent. What should you check first?
Antwort
Check the selected input, mute state, app permission, and microphone opening. Then inspect the internal connection if every app fails.
Karte 10
Frage
Why disconnect the internal battery before replacing laptop RAM, storage, or a display assembly?
Antwort
To remove standby power from the board and reduce short-circuit risk. Follow the model's shutdown and battery-disconnection procedure.
Karte 11
Frage
What should guide any field replacement inside a thin mobile device?
Antwort
The manufacturer's service instructions, warranty terms, and ESD precautions. Adhesives, hidden cables, and replaceable assemblies vary by model.
Karte 12
Frage
How do USB-C, microUSB, and miniUSB differ?
Antwort
They are different connector shapes. USB-C is reversible; microUSB and miniUSB are older keyed designs, and none of the shapes alone guarantees a data speed.
Karte 13
Frage
What can a laptop docking station add through one host connection?
Antwort
Power, displays, networking, storage, and peripheral ports. The host, dock, cable, and software must support the promised features.
Karte 14
Frage
What must match for a stylus to support pressure or precision input?
Antwort
The stylus technology and the device's digitizer. A generic capacitive stylus may act like a finger but can't add unsupported active-pen features.
Karte 15
Frage
Which connector is associated with many older Apple mobile devices?
Antwort
Lightning. Match the cable to the actual model because newer Apple devices may use USB-C.
Karte 16
Frage
How do a headset, external speaker, and webcam extend a mobile workstation?
Antwort
A headset adds private audio input/output, a speaker adds room audio, and a webcam adds video input. Select each one in the app after connecting it.
Karte 17
Frage
How do a trackpad, drawing pad, and trackpoint differ?
Antwort
A trackpad senses finger gestures, a drawing pad captures pen input, and a trackpoint moves the pointer from a small keyboard-mounted stick.
Karte 18
Frage
What is NFC commonly used for on a mobile device?
Antwort
Very short-range exchanges such as tap-to-pay, credential reading, or quick pairing. Its short working distance supports deliberate tap-style use.
Karte 19
Frage
How is a port replicator different from a full docking station?
Antwort
A port replicator mainly exposes additional connectors; a dock commonly adds broader capabilities such as charging, displays, or networking. Verify the product's actual feature list.
Karte 20
Frage
Which connection is the usual choice for nearby mobile headsets and keyboards?
Antwort
Bluetooth. It provides short-range wireless accessory links with relatively low power use.
Karte 21
Frage
What does mobile tethering or hotspot mode do?
Antwort
It shares the device's internet connection with another client, commonly over Wi-Fi, USB, or Bluetooth. The carrier plan may limit tethering or data use.
Karte 22
Frage
How do 3G, 4G, and 5G relate on a mobile device?
Antwort
They are cellular network generations. Newer generations can offer more capacity or lower latency, but the device, SIM or eSIM, plan, coverage, and local network determine service.
Karte 23
Frage
What is the practical difference between a SIM and an eSIM?
Antwort
A SIM is a removable identity module; an eSIM stores a carrier profile in embedded hardware. Both associate the device with cellular service.
Karte 24
Frage
What sequence pairs a Bluetooth accessory safely?
Antwort
Enable Bluetooth, put the accessory in pairing mode, select the intended device, confirm any PIN or code, and test the connection.
Karte 25
Frage
How do GPS and cellular location services complement each other?
Antwort
GPS derives position from satellites, while cellular and nearby-network data can speed or assist location. App permission and device settings control access.
Karte 26
Frage
Which radios should you check when a phone has neither local Wi-Fi nor wide-area data?
Antwort
Check Wi-Fi and cellular data separately, along with airplane mode. One radio can be disabled while the other remains available.
Karte 27
Frage
What should you verify when adding mail to a mobile device?
Antwort
Verify the account, credentials, incoming and outgoing server settings, security method, and network access. A correct password can't repair a wrong server setting.
Karte 28
Frage
A phone can browse on Wi-Fi but not through its hotspot. What should you check?
Antwort
Check that hotspot service is enabled, cellular data works, the plan permits tethering, and the client has the correct hotspot password.
Karte 29
Frage
How should you test a newly configured mobile connection?
Antwort
Test the intended path and service: join the correct network or carrier, verify addressing or signal, then open the required app or destination.
Karte 30
Frage
What does mobile device management provide?
Antwort
Central enrollment, device configuration, policy enforcement, corporate-app deployment, inventory, and approved remote actions.
Karte 31
Frage
How do corporate-owned and BYOD management profiles usually differ?
Antwort
Corporate-owned devices normally allow broader organizational control; BYOD profiles should isolate managed work data and respect the user's personal data under policy.
Karte 32
Frage
What should be checked when calendar, contacts, or business mail stops synchronizing?
Antwort
Check connectivity, account sign-in, sync scope, device time, storage, and service status before removing the account.
Karte 33
Frage
Why do data caps matter to mobile synchronization?
Antwort
Large mail, cloud-storage, or app sync jobs can consume metered cellular data. Choose what syncs and whether Wi-Fi is required.
Karte 34
Frage
When is an MDM remote wipe appropriate?
Antwort
When policy authorizes removal of protected data from a lost, stolen, retired, or reassigned device. Confirm the exact device and wipe scope first.
Karte 35
Frage
What is the point of separating corporate apps and data on a personal phone?
Antwort
It lets the organization enforce work controls and remove managed data without treating the user's whole device as corporate property.
Karte 36
Frage
How do TCP and UDP differ?
Antwort
TCP provides connection-oriented, ordered, acknowledged delivery; UDP sends low-overhead datagrams without built-in ordering or retransmission.
Karte 37
Frage
Which ports are associated with classic FTP?
Antwort
TCP 21 carries control traffic, and TCP 20 is the traditional active-mode data port. FTP doesn't encrypt credentials or content by itself.
Karte 38
Frage
Which default port does SSH use, and what does it provide?
Antwort
TCP 22. SSH provides encrypted remote command-line access and related secure services.
Karte 39
Frage
Which default port is traditionally used for SMTP server-to-server relay?
Antwort
TCP 25. Mail clients commonly submit outgoing mail through a separate authenticated service.
Karte 40
Frage
Which port does DNS use?
Antwort
Port 53: usually UDP for ordinary queries and TCP when the response or operation requires it.
Karte 41
Frage
Which ports carry DHCP client and server traffic?
Antwort
UDP 68 for the client and UDP 67 for the server. A new client can broadcast before it has an address.
Karte 42
Frage
Which ports distinguish HTTP from HTTPS?
Antwort
HTTP normally uses TCP 80; HTTPS normally uses TCP 443 and protects the session with TLS.
Karte 43
Frage
Which default port does POP3 use without TLS?
Antwort
TCP 110. POP3 commonly downloads messages rather than synchronizing server-side folders like IMAP.
Karte 44
Frage
Which ports are associated with NetBIOS over TCP/IP?
Antwort
Ports 137–139. Name service commonly uses 137, datagram service 138, and session service TCP 139.
Karte 45
Frage
Which default port does LDAP use?
Antwort
Port 389, commonly TCP. LDAP provides directory queries and updates; protect credentials with an approved secure configuration.
Karte 46
Frage
Which default port does SMB/CIFS commonly use?
Antwort
TCP 445. SMB commonly carries file and printer sharing.
Karte 47
Frage
Which default port does RDP use?
Antwort
TCP 3389. RDP provides remote graphical access to a Windows system.
Karte 48
Frage
Which default port does Telnet use, and why is it avoided on untrusted networks?
Antwort
TCP 23. Telnet sends remote-terminal traffic without SSH's encryption.
Karte 49
Frage
Which default port does IMAP use without TLS?
Antwort
TCP 143. IMAP keeps mailbox state and folders synchronized on the server.
Karte 50
Frage
How do common 802.11 families map to Wi-Fi bands?
Antwort
802.11b/g use 2.4 GHz; 802.11a/ac use 5 GHz; 802.11n can use 2.4 or 5 GHz; 802.11ax can use 2.4 or 5 GHz, with Wi-Fi 6E extending it to 6 GHz.
Karte 51
Frage
What is the tradeoff when selecting a wider Wi-Fi channel?
Antwort
A wider channel can carry more data but occupies more spectrum and may overlap more neighbors. Use a width that clients, regulations, and local conditions support.
Karte 52
Frage
What networking role does Bluetooth fill?
Antwort
Short-range personal-area links for accessories and nearby devices. It trades range and throughput for convenience and relatively low power use.
Karte 53
Frage
How do the 2.4, 5, and 6 GHz Wi-Fi bands generally differ?
Antwort
2.4 GHz usually reaches farther but is crowded; 5 GHz offers more capacity with less wall penetration; 6 GHz adds clean spectrum for compatible devices but typically has the shortest reach.
Karte 54
Frage
How does NFC differ from general-purpose Wi-Fi?
Antwort
NFC handles deliberate, very short-range exchanges; Wi-Fi provides a longer-range network connection with much higher throughput.
Karte 55
Frage
What should guide Wi-Fi channel selection?
Antwort
Local regulations, a spectrum or Wi-Fi survey, channel width, band support, interference, and neighboring use. Choose from measured conditions, then retest where users work.
Karte 56
Frage
What is RFID used for?
Antwort
Identifying or tracking tagged objects by radio. Readers can work with passive or powered tags at ranges set by the RFID system.
Karte 57
Frage
What distinguishes Wi-Fi 6E from ordinary Wi-Fi 6 operation?
Antwort
Wi-Fi 6E permits compatible 802.11ax devices to use the 6 GHz band. Both the client and access point must support that band.
Karte 58
Frage
How do DNS and DHCP server roles differ?
Antwort
DNS resolves names to records; DHCP leases IP configuration such as an address, mask, gateway, and DNS servers.
Karte 59
Frage
How do file and print servers centralize shared resources?
Antwort
A file server hosts shared data and permissions; a print server manages printer queues, drivers, and access.
Karte 60
Frage
How do mail and web servers differ?
Antwort
A mail server transfers or stores messages; a web server returns site or application content over HTTP or HTTPS.
Karte 61
Frage
Why would a network use both syslog and NTP servers?
Antwort
Syslog centralizes event messages, while NTP aligns device clocks so those events have comparable timestamps.
Karte 62
Frage
How do AAA and database servers differ?
Antwort
An AAA server handles authentication, authorization, and accounting; a database server stores and queries structured application data.
Karte 63
Frage
How do a spam gateway and a proxy serve different traffic?
Antwort
A spam gateway filters mail flow; a proxy relays client requests and may enforce filtering, logging, or caching for supported services.
Karte 64
Frage
How do a UTM appliance and a load balancer differ?
Antwort
A UTM combines gateway security controls; a load balancer distributes requests across service instances for capacity or availability.
Karte 65
Frage
Why do legacy and embedded network systems need cautious support planning?
Antwort
They may have fixed software, limited interfaces, or long service lives. Isolate them, preserve required compatibility, and change them only within vendor and operational constraints.
Karte 66
Frage
What does SCADA monitor or control?
Antwort
Industrial processes and equipment. Availability and physical safety requirements belong in every support decision.
Karte 67
Frage
Why are IoT devices often placed on a separate network?
Antwort
Segmentation limits what an outdated or compromised device can reach and makes its traffic easier to manage.
Karte 68
Frage
Match DNS A, AAAA, CNAME, and MX records to their jobs.
Antwort
A maps a hostname to IPv4, AAAA maps it to IPv6, CNAME aliases one hostname to another, and MX identifies a domain's mail exchangers.
Karte 69
Frage
How do a DHCP scope and exclusion differ?
Antwort
The scope defines the address pool and options DHCP can offer; an exclusion removes selected addresses from automatic leasing.
Karte 70
Frage
What does a VLAN create on switched infrastructure?
Antwort
A logical Layer 2 broadcast domain. It separates traffic without requiring a different physical switch for every segment.
Karte 71
Frage
What does a VPN protect?
Antwort
Traffic across an untrusted network by creating an authenticated encrypted tunnel. Endpoint security and resource permissions still matter.
Karte 72
Frage
How do DNS TXT records support SPF, DKIM, and DMARC?
Antwort
TXT records publish mail-policy data: SPF lists authorized senders, DKIM exposes keys for signature checks, and DMARC sets alignment policy and reporting.
Karte 73
Frage
How do a DHCP lease and reservation differ?
Antwort
A lease is a time-limited address assignment; a reservation consistently offers a chosen address to a specific client, usually by MAC address.
Karte 74
Frage
How do access and trunk switch ports handle VLANs?
Antwort
An access port normally carries one endpoint VLAN; a trunk carries tagged traffic for multiple VLANs.
Karte 75
Frage
When would you choose a site-to-site VPN instead of a client VPN?
Antwort
Choose site-to-site for a persistent protected link between networks; choose a client VPN for an individual endpoint connecting remotely.
Karte 76
Frage
How do routers and Ethernet switches differ?
Antwort
A router forwards packets between IP networks; a switch forwards local frames using learned MAC-address locations.
Karte 77
Frage
What does a wireless access point do?
Antwort
It bridges compatible wireless clients onto a wired LAN. Routing, DHCP, and internet access may come from other devices.
Karte 78
Frage
What is a patch panel's role?
Antwort
It passively terminates and organizes permanent cable runs. Patch cords connect those runs to active equipment such as switches.
Karte 79
Frage
What is a firewall's core job?
Antwort
It permits or blocks traffic according to security rules. Logs help explain why expected traffic was accepted or denied.
Karte 80
Frage
How do managed and unmanaged switches differ?
Antwort
A managed switch exposes configuration and monitoring such as VLANs; an unmanaged switch provides basic switching with little or no administration.
Karte 81
Frage
How can PoE be supplied, and what must match?
Antwort
A PoE switch or injector can supply it. The source standard, powered device, cable, per-port state, and total power budget must be compatible.
Karte 82
Frage
Match cable modem, DSL modem, ONT, and NIC to their access roles.
Antwort
Cable and DSL modems terminate coax and telephone-copper services; an ONT terminates provider fiber; a NIC connects the host and carries its physical MAC address.
Karte 83
Frage
How do private and public IPv4 addresses differ?
Antwort
Private ranges are used inside networks and aren't routed on the public internet; a public address is globally routable when assigned. NAT often translates between them.
Karte 84
Frage
What does a 169.254.x.x IPv4 address usually indicate?
Antwort
APIPA self-assignment after the host failed to obtain DHCP configuration. Check the link and path to DHCP.
Karte 85
Frage
When should a SOHO device use static rather than dynamic IP configuration?
Antwort
Use static or reserved addressing when a predictable endpoint is required; use DHCP for ordinary clients that can accept leased settings.
Karte 86
Frage
What does an IPv4 subnet mask tell a host?
Antwort
Which address bits identify the local network. The host uses it to decide whether to send directly or through a gateway.
Karte 87
Frage
How does IPv6 addressing differ from IPv4 addressing?
Antwort
IPv6 uses 128-bit hexadecimal addresses; IPv4 uses 32-bit dotted-decimal addresses. Both still require correct local and routing configuration.
Karte 88
Frage
What does a default gateway provide?
Antwort
The next hop for destinations outside the local subnet. It is normally the local router interface for that network.
Karte 89
Frage
How do fiber, cable, and DSL internet access differ?
Antwort
Fiber carries light and offers high capacity; cable uses a shared coax access network; DSL carries broadband over telephone copper and depends strongly on line distance and quality.
Karte 90
Frage
How do PAN, LAN, and WLAN differ?
Antwort
A PAN links one person's nearby devices, a LAN serves a local site, and a WLAN is the wireless form of a local-area network.
Karte 91
Frage
When are cellular, WISP, and satellite internet useful?
Antwort
Cellular uses mobile coverage, a WISP uses a terrestrial provider radio link, and satellite reaches beyond many ground networks. Signal, latency, limits, and availability guide the choice.
Karte 92
Frage
How do MAN and WAN scopes differ?
Antwort
A MAN links sites across a city or metropolitan area; a WAN spans larger geographic distances and joins multiple networks.
Karte 93
Frage
What is a storage area network?
Antwort
A SAN is a dedicated network that presents shared block storage to servers. It is different from an ordinary user LAN or file share.
Karte 94
Frage
Which tools prepare and terminate a modular copper cable?
Antwort
A cable stripper removes the jacket; a crimper attaches a compatible modular plug. Use the intended pinout, then test the cable.
Karte 95
Frage
How do a punchdown tool and cable tester support a permanent cable run?
Antwort
The punchdown tool seats conductors into an IDC block; the tester checks continuity and wire-map faults after termination.
Karte 96
Frage
How do a toner probe and loopback plug answer different network questions?
Antwort
A tone generator and probe identify a cable's far end; a loopback plug tests whether a port can transmit and receive through its own interface.
Karte 97
Frage
How do a Wi-Fi analyzer and network tap differ?
Antwort
A Wi-Fi analyzer measures nearby wireless networks and channels; a network tap exposes a link's traffic to monitoring equipment without becoming the endpoint.
Karte 98
Frage
How do IPS, TN, and VA LCD panels generally differ?
Antwort
IPS favors color consistency and viewing angles, TN favors fast response at low cost, and VA favors contrast. Actual panel quality still varies.
Karte 99
Frage
How do OLED and Mini-LED displays produce light?
Antwort
OLED pixels emit their own light; Mini-LED is an LCD that uses many small backlight zones. OLED can show deep blacks, while Mini-LED can reach high brightness without organic pixels.
Karte 100
Frage
What does a touchscreen digitizer do?
Antwort
It detects touch or compatible stylus position. The display creates the image; the digitizer reports input coordinates.
Karte 101
Frage
What does an inverter do in an older LCD backlight system?
Antwort
It converts power for the fluorescent backlight. Modern LED-backlit panels use different driver electronics.
Karte 102
Frage
How do screen resolution and pixel density differ?
Antwort
Resolution is the number of addressable pixels; pixel density is how tightly those pixels fit in a physical area. Both affect perceived detail.
Karte 103
Frage
What do refresh rate and color gamut describe?
Antwort
Refresh rate is how often the image can update each second; color gamut is the range of colors the display can reproduce.
Karte 104
Frage
How do Cat 5e, Cat 6, and Cat 6A Ethernet cable capabilities compare?
Antwort
Cat 5e commonly supports 1 Gb/s to 100 m; Cat 6 improves noise performance and can support 10 Gb/s on shorter runs; Cat 6A is designed for 10 Gb/s to 100 m.
Karte 105
Frage
How do HDMI and DisplayPort fit typical display setups?
Antwort
Both carry digital video and audio. HDMI is common on TVs and consumer equipment; DisplayPort is common on PCs and monitors, with features set by the negotiated versions.
Karte 106
Frage
What is the practical difference between T568A and T568B terminations?
Antwort
They place the green and orange pairs in different pin positions. Use one recognized scheme consistently at both plug and punchdown-block terminations for a normal straight-through run.
Karte 107
Frage
Which cable ratings suit EMI, outdoor burial, and air-handling spaces?
Antwort
Unshielded twisted pair suits ordinary low-interference runs, shielded twisted pair helps with EMI, direct-burial cable resists outdoor moisture, and plenum-rated cable limits flame spread and smoke in plenum spaces.
Karte 108
Frage
Match RJ11, RJ45, and F-type connectors to common cabling.
Antwort
RJ11 is commonly used for telephone wiring, the 8P8C connector called RJ45 for twisted-pair Ethernet, and F-type for threaded coax connections.
Karte 109
Frage
How do DVI and VGA differ?
Antwort
DVI variants may carry digital video, analog video, or both; VGA carries analog video through a 15-pin D-sub connector.
Karte 110
Frage
How do single-mode and multimode fiber differ, and which connectors may terminate them?
Antwort
Single-mode uses a small core for long links; multimode uses a larger core for shorter links. ST, SC, and LC are connector styles that must match the link hardware and fiber type.
Karte 111
Frage
What should you infer from USB 2.0, USB 3.x, microUSB, miniUSB, USB-C, and Lightning labels?
Antwort
USB 2.0 and 3.x describe protocol capabilities. MicroUSB, miniUSB, and USB-C are USB connector families; Lightning is a separate Apple connector. Plug shape alone doesn't guarantee speed or video support.
Karte 112
Frage
How do SATA, eSATA, and Molex relate to storage connections?
Antwort
SATA carries internal drive data, eSATA extends SATA to an external connector, and a Molex plug is a legacy power connector. Data and power paths are separate.
Karte 113
Frage
Which legacy peripheral link commonly uses a DB9 connector?
Antwort
A serial connection such as RS-232. It sends data sequentially and is still used for some console and industrial equipment.
Karte 114
Frage
When does a cable adapter need active electronics?
Antwort
When the source and destination use different signaling, not just different plug shapes. A passive adapter only changes compatible wiring; an active adapter converts the signal.
Karte 115
Frage
Where are DIMM and SO-DIMM modules normally used?
Antwort
Full-size DIMMs normally fit desktop or server boards; shorter SO-DIMMs fit many laptops and compact systems.
Karte 116
Frage
Why doesn't every USB-C cable provide Thunderbolt or display output?
Antwort
USB-C names the connector. Thunderbolt, USB speed, charging level, and video alternate modes require matching support from the port, cable, and device.
Karte 117
Frage
Can one DDR memory generation be installed in another generation's slot?
Antwort
No. DDR generations use different electrical designs and keying, so the module must match the motherboard.
Karte 118
Frage
How does ECC RAM differ from non-ECC RAM?
Antwort
ECC can detect and correct certain memory errors; non-ECC lacks that protection. The CPU and motherboard must support ECC.
Karte 119
Frage
What does a dual- or multi-channel memory configuration require?
Antwort
Compatible modules installed in the motherboard's paired channel slots. The board manual identifies the correct population order.
Karte 120
Frage
What happens when compatible RAM modules have different rated speeds?
Antwort
They normally operate at a mutually supported speed, often the slower module's rate. Platform and firmware limits can reduce it further.
Karte 121
Frage
What limits a system's usable RAM capacity?
Antwort
The CPU memory controller, motherboard, firmware, operating system, and supported module layout. Check the platform documentation before buying modules.
Karte 122
Frage
How do RAID 0 and RAID 1 trade capacity for protection?
Antwort
RAID 0 stripes data for capacity and performance but has no redundancy; RAID 1 mirrors data and can survive one member failure.
Karte 123
Frage
How do 2.5-inch and 3.5-inch HDDs, spindle speed, and workload affect a drive choice?
Antwort
The bay and interface must fit the form factor; faster spindle speed can improve access but adds heat, noise, and power use. Workload and capacity still matter.
Karte 124
Frage
How do SATA SSDs and NVMe SSDs communicate?
Antwort
A SATA SSD uses the SATA storage interface; an NVMe SSD uses PCIe for lower-latency flash access. The slot and firmware must support the selected signaling.
Karte 125
Frage
Which removable media suit portable files, camera storage, and optical archives?
Antwort
USB flash drives suit general transfers, memory cards suit compact devices such as cameras, and optical discs require a drive that supports the disc format.
Karte 126
Frage
How do RAID 5 and RAID 6 differ?
Antwort
RAID 5 needs at least three drives and tolerates one member failure; RAID 6 needs at least four and uses dual parity to tolerate two.
Karte 127
Frage
What distinguishes SAS from SATA storage?
Antwort
SAS is an enterprise-oriented serial SCSI interface with features such as dual-port support; SATA is common in client storage. The drive and controller interface must match.
Karte 128
Frage
How do M.2 and mSATA differ?
Antwort
M.2 is a keyed form-factor family that may carry SATA or PCIe/NVMe; mSATA is an older compact form factor that carries SATA signaling.
Karte 129
Frage
When is an SSD preferable to an HDD?
Antwort
Choose an SSD for low-latency, shock-resistant storage; choose an HDD when low-cost bulk capacity matters more. Neither removes the need for backup.
Karte 130
Frage
How do ATX, microATX, and Mini-ITX motherboard form factors affect a build?
Antwort
They differ in board size, mounting layout, and typical expansion capacity. The case, power supply, and required slots must fit the board.
Karte 131
Frage
Match common motherboard connectors to their jobs.
Antwort
PCI and PCIe host expansion cards; SATA and eSATA carry storage data; M.2 hosts compact devices; headers connect case features; power connectors feed the board and CPU.
Karte 132
Frage
What does RAID 10 provide?
Antwort
Striping across mirrored pairs, normally using at least four drives. It combines performance with redundancy, but surviving multiple failures depends on which members fail.
Karte 133
Frage
What must match before installing an AMD or Intel CPU?
Antwort
The CPU socket, chipset, firmware, and thermal design must support that exact processor. Multisocket boards also require a supported processor combination.
Karte 134
Frage
Which UEFI settings commonly control startup and hardware access?
Antwort
Boot order, removable-media boot, USB permissions, fan behavior, temperature monitoring, and virtualization support. Change only the setting required for the task.
Karte 135
Frage
How do Secure Boot, a boot password, and a firmware setup password differ?
Antwort
Secure Boot verifies trusted boot software; a boot password challenges startup; a setup password restricts firmware changes.
Karte 136
Frage
How do x86, x64, and ARM CPU architectures affect compatibility?
Antwort
They use different instruction-set families; x86 is 32-bit, x64 extends that family to 64-bit, and ARM uses a RISC design. The OS and applications need compatible builds.
Karte 137
Frage
What does adding CPU cores improve?
Antwort
Parallel work when software can use the cores. Architecture, clock speed, cooling, memory, and workload still shape performance.
Karte 138
Frage
Match sound, video, capture, and network expansion cards to their jobs.
Antwort
Sound cards handle audio I/O, video cards render graphics, capture cards ingest external media signals, and NICs add network connectivity.
Karte 139
Frage
How do a TPM and HSM support encryption differently?
Antwort
A TPM is a system security chip for protected keys and platform measurements; an HSM is a dedicated device or service for controlled cryptographic key operations.
Karte 140
Frage
How do fans and heat sinks work together?
Antwort
A heat sink spreads component heat across fins; fans move air across those fins and through the case.
Karte 141
Frage
Why are thermal paste or pads placed between a chip and cooler?
Antwort
They fill microscopic gaps so heat transfers efficiently. Use the specified material and amount.
Karte 142
Frage
What extra components does liquid CPU cooling add to diagnosis?
Antwort
A pump, coolant path, radiator, fans, tubing, and seals. Verify mounting, flow, airflow, and leaks.
Karte 143
Frage
What hardware and firmware support may a hypervisor require?
Antwort
A compatible CPU virtualization feature enabled in UEFI, plus enough memory, storage, networking, and security controls for its guests.
Karte 144
Frage
What must be checked when a PSU can receive 110–120 VAC or 220–240 VAC?
Antwort
Its input range and selector behavior. Use the local mains range and never guess with a manual voltage switch.
Karte 145
Frage
What do the 3.3 V, 5 V, and 12 V PSU rails typically power?
Antwort
They supply different component circuits: 3.3 V and 5 V serve logic and peripherals, while 12 V commonly feeds CPU/GPU regulators, motors, and fans.
Karte 146
Frage
What does a 20+4-pin ATX connector power?
Antwort
The motherboard's main input. The CPU normally needs a separate 4- or 8-pin EPS-style connection.
Karte 147
Frage
How should PSU wattage be chosen?
Antwort
Add the system's realistic peak demand and sensible headroom, then confirm connector, rail, and quality requirements. A large wattage label alone doesn't prove suitability.
Karte 148
Frage
What is the advantage and main caution of a modular PSU?
Antwort
Detachable cables reduce clutter, but only cables approved for that exact PSU should be used. Modular pinouts aren't universally interchangeable.
Karte 149
Frage
What does a redundant power supply provide?
Antwort
Two or more power modules so one can fail without immediately stopping the system. Redundancy still needs correct capacity and monitoring.
Karte 150
Frage
Why does PSU efficiency matter?
Antwort
Higher efficiency wastes less input power as heat at a given load. Efficiency certification doesn't replace checks for electrical quality, capacity, or connectors.
Karte 151
Frage
How does a laser printer create and fix an image?
Antwort
It forms an electrostatic image, applies toner, and bonds the toner with a heated fuser. Toner, drum, transfer, and fuser parts all affect output.
Karte 152
Frage
What should be checked when unboxing and placing a multifunction printer?
Antwort
Remove shipping locks, allow service clearance and ventilation, match power and network access, load supported media, and choose a stable location.
Karte 153
Frage
How do PCL and PostScript printer drivers differ?
Antwort
PCL is common for fast office output and can vary by device; PostScript describes pages in a device-independent way that suits complex graphics. Use the printer's supported driver.
Karte 154
Frage
What should be verified when choosing USB, Ethernet, or Wi-Fi for a printer?
Antwort
Verify the intended users, cable or signal path, addressing, security, firmware, and driver support. USB serves a local host; network links serve reachable clients.
Karte 155
Frage
Which parts and maintenance tasks are typical for an inkjet printer?
Antwort
Ink cartridges, printheads, pickup rollers, and feeders. Clean or align printheads, replace approved cartridges, clear jams, and service feed parts as needed.
Karte 156
Frage
How do printer sharing and a print server differ?
Antwort
A printer share exposes a queue from a host; a print server centralizes queues, drivers, permissions, and management for many clients.
Karte 157
Frage
Which settings commonly change a print job's physical output?
Antwort
Duplex, portrait or landscape orientation, paper tray and size, and quality. The application, driver, and device settings must agree.
Karte 158
Frage
Which controls protect a public or shared printer?
Antwort
User authentication or badging, secure print release, appropriate permissions, and audit logs. They reduce abandoned sensitive output and trace approved use.
Karte 159
Frage
How does a direct thermal printer work and what maintenance does it need?
Antwort
Heat darkens special thermal paper. Replace the paper correctly, clean the heating element and feed path, and remove debris.
Karte 160
Frage
Where can a network multifunction device send scans?
Antwort
Common destinations are email, an SMB file share, or an approved cloud service. Configure credentials, permissions, addressing, and encryption for the destination.
Karte 161
Frage
When should you use an ADF instead of a flatbed scanner?
Antwort
Use the automatic document feeder for stacks of loose pages; use the flatbed for fragile, bound, thick, or single originals.
Karte 162
Frage
What does printer calibration correct?
Antwort
Placement, density, alignment, or color registration. Run the maker's procedure after relevant part or image-quality changes.
Karte 163
Frage
Why does an impact printer suit multipart forms?
Antwort
Pins strike an inked ribbon and physically transfer the mark through layered paper. The mechanism is noisy but can mark multiple copies.
Karte 164
Frage
What does a laser-printer maintenance kit commonly refresh?
Antwort
Wear parts such as rollers and the fuser, as defined for that model. Replace depleted toner, install the kit at its service interval, calibrate when output shifts, and clean only through approved paths.
Karte 165
Frage
How do inkjet feed and printhead maintenance address different faults?
Antwort
Roller and feeder service fixes paper movement; printhead cleaning or alignment fixes missing or misplaced ink. Use the symptom to choose the maintenance.
Karte 166
Frage
What is a virtual machine?
Antwort
A software-defined computer with virtual CPU, memory, storage, and devices that runs a guest operating system on a host.
Karte 167
Frage
Where does a Type 1 hypervisor run?
Antwort
Directly on the host hardware. This bare-metal design is common in servers and virtualization platforms.
Karte 168
Frage
Why use a VM as a sandbox or test environment?
Antwort
It isolates a disposable environment from the main workload and makes repeatable testing easier. Isolation reduces risk but doesn't make untrusted code harmless.
Karte 169
Frage
Which VM resources must be sized against real host capacity?
Antwort
vCPU, memory, storage space, and I/O. Overcommitting them can make several guests compete for the same hardware.
Karte 170
Frage
What does application virtualization do?
Antwort
It packages, streams, or isolates an application from the base installation. It can simplify delivery or preserve some legacy applications without virtualizing a whole desktop.
Karte 171
Frage
Where does a Type 2 hypervisor run?
Antwort
As an application on a host operating system. It is convenient for desktop labs, testing, and occasional guests.
Karte 172
Frage
Which security layers need attention on a virtualization host?
Antwort
The host, hypervisor, management access, guest OSs, virtual networks, and images. Patch and isolate each layer according to its role.
Karte 173
Frage
What must be planned for VM networking?
Antwort
Addressing, virtual switch or NAT mode, segmentation, bandwidth, and access controls. A guest still needs a deliberate path to required services.
Karte 174
Frage
What does VDI deliver?
Antwort
Centrally hosted desktop sessions to remote clients. Compute and management stay in the data center or cloud rather than on each endpoint.
Karte 175
Frage
What must be planned for VM storage?
Antwort
Capacity, performance, snapshots, backup, and failure location. A snapshot on the same datastore isn't a complete backup.
Karte 176
Frage
How does a container differ from a typical VM?
Antwort
A container isolates an application while sharing the host kernel; a VM normally includes a full guest operating system.
Karte 177
Frage
How can virtualization support legacy or cross-platform workloads?
Antwort
A compatible guest OS or virtualized application layer can preserve the required environment. CPU architecture, licenses, drivers, and hardware access still constrain compatibility.
Karte 178
Frage
What does a container image provide?
Antwort
A repeatable application filesystem and configuration used to start containers. Running containers add temporary writable state unless storage is attached.
Karte 179
Frage
A virtualization option is unavailable. What should you verify?
Antwort
Verify CPU and platform support, then enable the required virtualization feature in UEFI if policy allows. Also confirm that another hypervisor hasn't claimed it.
Karte 180
Frage
What defines a public cloud?
Antwort
It is offered for open use by the general public and operated by a cloud provider. Its resources may be shared or dedicated, depending on the service.
Karte 181
Frage
What does IaaS provide?
Antwort
Cloud compute, networking, and storage infrastructure. The customer usually manages the operating system, applications, identities, and data.
Karte 182
Frage
What is cloud elasticity?
Antwort
The ability to add or remove resources as demand changes, automatically or on request.
Karte 183
Frage
What does metered cloud utilization measure?
Antwort
Consumed resources such as compute time, storage, requests, or transferred data for reporting, limits, and billing.
Karte 184
Frage
What defines a private cloud?
Antwort
Cloud infrastructure reserved for one organization. It can run on-site or be hosted and operated by a provider.
Karte 185
Frage
What does SaaS provide?
Antwort
A complete provider-run application accessed as a service. The customer mainly manages users, settings, and data.
Karte 186
Frage
How do shared and dedicated cloud resources differ?
Antwort
Shared resources serve multiple customers with logical isolation; dedicated resources are reserved for one customer. Either can appear in a provider's public-cloud offering.
Karte 187
Frage
What is high availability designed to reduce?
Antwort
Service downtime from component or location failure through redundancy and failover.
Karte 188
Frage
What is a hybrid cloud?
Antwort
A coordinated use of private-cloud and public-cloud environments, with workloads or data placed where their requirements fit.
Karte 189
Frage
What does PaaS provide?
Antwort
A managed application platform and runtime. Developers deploy code while the provider manages more of the operating system and infrastructure.
Karte 190
Frage
What do cloud ingress and egress mean?
Antwort
Ingress is data entering the cloud service; egress is data leaving it. Providers often meter them differently, and egress can create a notable cost.
Karte 191
Frage
What does cloud multitenancy mean?
Antwort
Multiple customers use provider infrastructure while their workloads and data remain logically isolated.
Karte 192
Frage
What is a community cloud?
Antwort
Cloud infrastructure reserved for organizations with shared requirements, such as a sector or policy need, rather than for unrestricted public use.
Karte 193
Frage
What does FaaS run?
Antwort
Event-triggered functions without the customer managing servers directly. The provider manages the execution environment and scaling mechanics.
Karte 194
Frage
Does using a cloud service remove the customer's security duties?
Antwort
No. Responsibility is shared: the provider protects its service layers, while the customer still manages assigned areas such as identities, settings, applications, and data.
Karte 195
Frage
What can happen when two offline devices edit the same cloud-synchronized file?
Antwort
A synchronization conflict. Preserve both versions, let sync finish, compare the changes, and keep the intended content.
Karte 196
Frage
A PC stops at POST with a beep or status-light pattern. What should you do next?
Antwort
Look up the exact pattern in the system or motherboard service documentation, then test the indicated component.
Karte 197
Frage
A desktop shows no lights or fan movement. Where should power diagnosis start?
Antwort
At the outlet, power strip, cord, PSU input switch, and main internal power connections. Move from the source inward.
Karte 198
Frage
A PC shows a proprietary crash screen. What evidence should you collect first?
Antwort
Record the stop code and recent hardware changes, then check memory, storage, drivers, temperature, and logs indicated by that code.
Karte 199
Frage
A PC powers on but the screen stays blank. What hardware checks come first?
Antwort
Check display power and input, video cabling, GPU seating or power, and whether POST completes. Test one known-good display path at a time.
Karte 200
Frage
A computer is sluggish under ordinary work. Which hardware conditions should you check?
Antwort
Check temperature and throttling, RAM pressure, storage health and free space, CPU load, and background I/O before replacing parts.
Karte 201
Frage
A PC becomes unstable as CPU temperature rises. What should you inspect?
Antwort
Inspect fan operation, heat-sink mounting, thermal material, dust, filters, and case airflow. The CPU may throttle or shut down to protect itself.
Karte 202
Frage
You smell burning from a powered computer. What is the immediate action?
Antwort
Shut it down and disconnect power. Don't keep testing until the damaged power or board component has been safely identified.
Karte 203
Frage
A PC shuts down randomly only during heavy GPU work. What should you test?
Antwort
Test PSU capacity and condition, GPU power leads, temperature, and event logs. Peak load can expose weak power or cooling.
Karte 204
Frage
Applications crash randomly after new RAM is installed. What should you do?
Antwort
Verify compatibility and slot placement, reseat the modules, and run a memory diagnostic. Test modules separately if needed.
Karte 205
Frage
A computer develops an unusual fan or grinding noise. What should you inspect?
Antwort
Inspect fans, cables, pumps, drives, dust, and mounting points while the system is safely powered down when contact is possible.
Karte 206
Frage
What should you do after finding a swollen motherboard capacitor?
Antwort
Disconnect power and replace the failed board or arrange qualified component service. Don't keep operating a board with a visibly failing capacitor.
Karte 207
Frage
A PC loses its date and time whenever it is unplugged. What is the likely cause?
Antwort
A weak motherboard coin-cell battery. Replace it with the specified type and restore any lost firmware settings.
Karte 208
Frage
Firmware reports less RAM than is installed. What is the first corrective step?
Antwort
Power down, follow ESD precautions, and reseat the modules in the recommended slots. Then test compatibility, sticks, and slots methodically.
Karte 209
Frage
A newly installed CPU isn't recognized even though it fits the socket. What should you verify?
Antwort
Verify chipset and firmware support, CPU power, contact condition, seating, and cooling. Physical fit alone doesn't prove compatibility.
Karte 210
Frage
How can you isolate a motherboard, CPU, RAM, or PSU no-POST fault?
Antwort
Reduce the system to minimum required hardware, confirm known-good power, and add components back one at a time.
Karte 211
Frage
A storage controller shows a warning LED or audible alarm. What should you do first?
Antwort
Read the controller's exact status, preserve a current backup, and identify the affected drive or array before replacing anything.
Karte 212
Frage
A hard drive clicks or grinds while reads fail. What should you prioritize?
Antwort
Stop unnecessary activity, preserve recoverable data, and replace the drive. Repeated testing can worsen a mechanical failure.
Karte 213
Frage
A PC reports no bootable device. Which checks come first?
Antwort
Check firmware drive detection and boot order, then data and power connections. If the drive is detected, check its health before changing partitions.
Karte 214
Frage
Files are corrupt or missing after storage errors. What should you do?
Antwort
Stop writes, preserve the affected media, restore from a verified backup when appropriate, and diagnose the drive, controller, memory, and filesystem cause.
Karte 215
Frage
A controller reports an array missing. What should you avoid?
Antwort
Don't initialize or recreate it blindly. Check controller configuration, cabling, power, member detection, and the documented recovery path first.
Karte 216
Frage
A drive has unusually long read and write times. What should you inspect?
Antwort
Inspect health data, errors, cable or link negotiation, free space, workload, temperature, and the storage interface.
Karte 217
Frage
What should you do after a S.M.A.R.T. failure warning?
Antwort
Back up important data immediately and plan drive replacement. A health warning isn't something to clear and ignore.
Karte 218
Frage
Firmware sees a drive, but the operating system doesn't. What should you check?
Antwort
Check OS storage management, drivers, bus support, partitions, and whether the disk is offline. Don't initialize a disk that may contain needed data.
Karte 219
Frage
A RAID array is degraded after a member fails. What is the safe response?
Antwort
Confirm the failed member, verify backup, replace it through the controller's procedure, and monitor the rebuild. Don't remove a healthy member by guesswork.
Karte 220
Frage
What can cause low storage IOPS even when capacity is available?
Antwort
A saturated or slow device, high queue depth, contention, thermal throttling, controller limits, or an unsuitable RAID layout.
Karte 221
Frage
A monitor reports no signal. What should you check first?
Antwort
Check power, selected input, cable seating, adapter compatibility, and whether the computer is producing video.
Karte 222
Frage
A projector is dim or shuts down intermittently. What should you inspect?
Antwort
Inspect the bulb or light source, filters, vents, temperature, brightness settings, room light, and service-life indicators.
Karte 223
Frage
Text looks fuzzy or the desktop doesn't fit the screen. Which settings should you verify?
Antwort
Verify native resolution, scaling, aspect ratio, and any overscan setting. Then check cable and adapter quality.
Karte 224
Frage
How do display burn-in and a dead pixel differ?
Antwort
Burn-in is persistent image retention across an area; a dead or stuck pixel is a fixed point defect. Confirm each with varied full-screen test images.
Karte 225
Frage
A display flashes or flickers at a new refresh rate. What should you check?
Antwort
Check that the display, GPU, port, cable, resolution, and refresh rate combination is supported.
Karte 226
Frage
A projected image is trapezoidal or distorted. What should you adjust?
Antwort
Correct projector position, angle, focus, and aspect ratio first; use keystone correction only as needed.
Karte 227
Frage
A monitor shows incorrect colors. How do you isolate the cause?
Antwort
Check color settings and profiles, reseat or replace the cable, test another input or display, and inspect GPU output and drivers.
Karte 228
Frage
Video works over HDMI or DisplayPort, but audio doesn't. What should you check?
Antwort
Check the OS playback device, application output, display volume, cable capability, and whether the adapter carries audio.
Karte 229
Frage
A laptop LCD shows a faint image only under a flashlight. Which area is likely failing?
Antwort
The backlight or its power/driver path. The faint picture shows that image data still reaches the panel.
Karte 230
Frage
A phone battery drains much faster than usual. What should you check first?
Antwort
Check battery health and recent screen, app, radio, and location use. Confirm the usage change before replacing hardware.
Karte 231
Frage
A phone has a broken screen but still receives notifications. What should guide the repair?
Antwort
Back up accessible data, stop using sharp or exposed surfaces, and determine whether the glass, display, digitizer, or full assembly is replaceable.
Karte 232
Frage
A phone won't charge and its port looks damaged. What is the safe first test?
Antwort
Inspect without metal tools, then try a known-good compatible cable and charger. Use wireless charging only if the device supports it and the battery is safe.
Karte 233
Frage
A phone has poor or no connectivity. What should you isolate?
Antwort
Test Wi-Fi, cellular, and Bluetooth separately; check airplane mode, signal, account or SIM/eSIM state, and the specific network settings.
Karte 234
Frage
A battery is pushing a mobile-device case apart. What should you do?
Antwort
Power it down, stop charging it, and arrange approved battery service. Don't press the case closed.
Karte 235
Frage
A mobile device gets wet. Why should you avoid powering or charging it?
Antwort
Moisture can cause shorts and corrosion. Shut it down and follow the manufacturer's drying or service guidance.
Karte 236
Frage
Touch input drifts or misses one area. What should you check?
Antwort
Check screen cleanliness and protectors, test calibration if supported, compare apps, and inspect the digitizer connection or damage.
Karte 237
Frage
A phone slows down and overheats during light use. What should you inspect?
Antwort
Inspect battery health, storage pressure, updates, background apps, signal hunting, and possible malware. Stop use if heat is unsafe.
Karte 238
Frage
A mobile device shows pop-ups and heavy data use after an untrusted install. What should you suspect?
Antwort
Malware or a harmful app. Disconnect as needed, preserve required evidence, remove it through the approved mobile-security process, and update the device.
Karte 239
Frage
A mobile device can't install a new application. What should you check?
Antwort
Check free storage, OS and hardware compatibility, account or store access, network service, and MDM policy before bypassing any restriction.
Karte 240
Frage
An active stylus doesn't work, but finger touch does. What should you check?
Antwort
Check stylus compatibility, charge or battery, pairing, tip, app support, and the device's active-digitizer settings.
Karte 241
Frage
Users report slow network speeds. What should you measure before changing hardware?
Antwort
Measure negotiated link rate, throughput, utilization, errors, signal, channel use, and server or ISP performance to locate the bottleneck.
Karte 242
Frage
Wi-Fi disconnects intermittently in one area. What should you inspect?
Antwort
Inspect signal strength, roaming, interference, channel plan, access-point placement, client drivers, and power-saving behavior.
Karte 243
Frage
A client reports limited connectivity. Which layers should you check in order?
Antwort
Check physical or wireless link, IP address and mask, gateway, DHCP, DNS, and upstream reachability.
Karte 244
Frage
A user repeatedly fails network authentication. What should you verify?
Antwort
Verify the account and credentials, time, certificate, authentication method, network policy, and whether the user or device is authorized.
Karte 245
Frage
Which tools help locate high latency?
Antwort
Ping compares delay and loss; traceroute shows the path by hops. Test several destinations to separate a local, provider, and destination issue.
Karte 246
Frage
What signs point to external wireless interference?
Antwort
Signal quality or throughput drops despite adequate strength, often near a device or at certain times. A spectrum or Wi-Fi analyzer helps confirm it.
Karte 247
Frage
A switch port repeatedly changes between up and down. What should you isolate?
Antwort
Isolate the patch cable, wall run, endpoint NIC, and switch port. Review port logs and test the cable for a port-flapping cause.
Karte 248
Frage
A wired PC has no link light. Where should troubleshooting start?
Antwort
At the cable, connector, NIC, and switch port. Changing IP settings can't repair a missing physical link.
Karte 249
Frage
VoIP sounds choppy even though average bandwidth is adequate. Which network condition should you measure?
Antwort
Jitter, along with latency and packet loss. QoS and congestion control may help after the impaired path is identified.
Karte 250
Frage
Internet access drops for every local client, then returns. Where should you look?
Antwort
Check the shared WAN path: the router's WAN link, modem or ONT, provider service, power, and logs. Independent failures across every local client at once are unlikely.
Karte 251
Frage
A host can reach an internet IP but not a website name. What is the likely fault?
Antwort
DNS resolution. Check the configured resolver and test a direct lookup.
Karte 252
Frage
A PC receives a 169.254.x.x address. What should you test next?
Antwort
Test its link and the path to DHCP. The APIPA address shows that normal lease configuration failed.
Karte 253
Frage
Two hosts report an address conflict. What should you inspect?
Antwort
Inspect static assignments, DHCP reservations, and the lease scope for a duplicate IP address.
Karte 254
Frage
A PC on a new switch port can't reach its department resources. What should you verify?
Antwort
Verify the access VLAN, then its routing and policy. A good physical link on the wrong VLAN still provides the wrong network access.
Karte 255
Frage
A PoE camera has network pairs but no power. What should you check?
Antwort
Check the injector or switch standard, port state, total power budget, cable quality, and camera power requirement.
Karte 256
Frage
Only one PC lacks network access while nearby systems work. What should you compare?
Antwort
Compare its link, IP settings, DNS, authentication, proxy or VPN state, and local firewall with a working peer.
Karte 257
Frage
A printed page has a line in the same place every time. What should you inspect?
Antwort
Inspect the cartridge, printhead, drum, scanner glass, and approved cleaning path for contamination or damage, based on printer type.
Karte 258
Frage
A printer produces garbled characters. What should you verify?
Antwort
Verify the driver and print language, cable or network path, firmware, and source document. Cancel the bad job before retrying.
Karte 259
Frage
A printer reports a paper jam. What is the safe response?
Antwort
Stop the job, follow the documented paper path, remove paper in the specified direction, and check for scraps or damaged rollers.
Karte 260
Frage
Several print jobs remain pending after the printer recovers. What should you do?
Antwort
Cancel failed jobs as appropriate, verify printer status and connectivity, restart the print service if needed, then send one small test page.
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Karte 261
Frage
Printed pages are uniformly faded. What should you check?
Antwort
Check toner or ink level, density or quality settings, cartridge condition, and the correct media setting.
Karte 262
Frage
A printer makes a grinding noise. What should you do?
Antwort
Stop the job and inspect for jammed media, foreign objects, damaged gears, or a misseated cartridge or maintenance part.
Karte 263
Frage
Paper won't feed or several sheets feed together. Which parts should you inspect?
Antwort
Inspect pickup rollers, the separation pad, feeder, paper condition, tray guides, and load limit.
Karte 264
Frage
A document prints in the wrong orientation. What should you check?
Antwort
Check portrait or landscape settings in the application and driver, then confirm paper size and any device default.
Karte 265
Frage
What commonly causes speckles across printed pages?
Antwort
Loose toner, ink contamination, a dirty print path, or a damaged cartridge or drum. Use the printer type and repeating pattern to narrow it.
Karte 266
Frage
A finisher won't staple or punch pages. What should you inspect?
Antwort
Inspect the staple cartridge or jam, punch waste bin, finisher seating, supported paper, and driver job settings.
Karte 267
Frage
A printer doesn't recognize a loaded tray. What should you check?
Antwort
Check tray seating, paper guides and size sensors, media settings, firmware, and driver configuration.
Karte 268
Frage
A network printer shows Ready but clients can't reach it. What should you test?
Antwort
Test its link, IP configuration, address conflict, VLAN and routing path, print port, and firewall access.
Karte 269
Frage
A laser page shows a repeated faint image. Which area should you inspect?
Antwort
Inspect the imaging drum and fuser for ghosting. The repeat distance can help the service guide identify the rotating part.
Karte 270
Frage
A print queue is frozen and won't process a test page. What should you do?
Antwort
Clear the blocked job safely, restart the spooler or print service, verify disk and printer connectivity, then submit one small test.
Karte 271
Frage
Which desktop OS is the usual choice for broad business software and Active Directory integration?
Antwort
Windows. It has the widest support for common business applications and native integration with Microsoft domain services.
Karte 272
Frage
When is a clean OS installation preferable to an in-place upgrade?
Antwort
Choose a clean install when you need a fresh system or the existing installation is unreliable. It removes installed apps and settings, so back up user data first.
Karte 273
Frage
Which Windows command lists files and folders in the current directory?
Antwort
dir. Use cd when you need to change the current directory.
Karte 274
Frage
Which Windows tool gives a quick view of running processes, startup apps, users, services, and performance?
Antwort
Task Manager. It is the first stop for a quick process or resource check.
Karte 275
Frage
What should you check before moving a user between desktop or mobile operating systems?
Antwort
Check application, peripheral, file-format, and account compatibility first. A supported OS is still a bad fit if the user's required tools or data won't work on it.
Karte 276
Frage
How should you choose between a public and private Windows network profile?
Antwort
Use Public on untrusted networks and Private only on trusted local networks. The profile changes discovery and firewall behavior.
Karte 277
Frage
Which Windows command shows the current IP configuration?
Antwort
ipconfig. Add /all when you need details such as DHCP, DNS, gateway, and adapter addresses.
Karte 278
Frage
What is the main benefit of deploying an OS image?
Antwort
It applies a prepared, consistent system build to multiple devices. The image still needs compatible drivers, licensing, and post-deployment updates.
Karte 279
Frage
Which console should you open to investigate recorded application, security, or system errors?
Antwort
Event Viewer. Filter by the relevant time, source, and event level instead of treating every warning as the cause.
Karte 280
Frage
Which Windows file system supports permissions, encryption, compression, and large local volumes?
Antwort
NTFS. It is the standard Windows file system when you need access controls and other full desktop features.
Karte 281
Frage
Which Windows edition fits a basic home PC that does not need business management features?
Antwort
Windows Home. It covers normal consumer use but lacks several business features found in Pro and Enterprise.
Karte 282
Frage
What do the common macOS application forms .dmg, .pkg, and .app represent?
Antwort
A .dmg is a mountable disk image, a .pkg runs an installer, and an .app is an application bundle. Remove software with its supported process, especially when it installed system components.
Karte 283
Frage
Which boot approach lets a technician start an installer delivered by a deployment server?
Antwort
Network boot, commonly PXE. The client firmware and network must support it, and the deployment service must be reachable.
Karte 284
Frage
Which command is the quickest basic test of IP reachability to another host?
Antwort
ping. A failed ping is only a clue because the host or firewall may block echo traffic.
Karte 285
Frage
Which Windows tool creates partitions, assigns drive letters, and initializes disks?
Antwort
Disk Management. Confirm the disk and volume before making changes because some operations can destroy data.
Karte 286
Frage
What is safer than disabling Windows Firewall when one application is blocked?
Antwort
Create the narrowest required application or port exception. Keep the firewall enabled and limit the rule to the needed profiles and traffic.
Karte 287
Frage
What should you compare before installing a demanding application?
Antwort
Compare its OS, CPU, RAM, storage, graphics, VRAM, and peripheral requirements with the device. Check both minimum and practical workload needs.
Karte 288
Frage
Which Windows edition is the usual minimum for joining a business domain and hosting Remote Desktop?
Antwort
Windows Pro. It also adds business features such as BitLocker management and Local Group Policy.
Karte 289
Frage
Which Windows command queries DNS records for a name?
Antwort
nslookup. It helps distinguish name-resolution trouble from basic network reachability.
Karte 290
Frage
Which macOS feature creates versioned backups for normal file and system recovery?
Antwort
Time Machine. Confirm the backup destination is available and test that needed files can actually be restored.
Karte 291
Frage
What makes zero-touch deployment different from a normal remote installation?
Antwort
Zero-touch deployment minimizes hands-on setup after the device starts. Policies, applications, and identity configuration are applied automatically.
Karte 292
Frage
When is exFAT usually a better removable-drive format than FAT32?
Antwort
Use exFAT when the drive must move between modern operating systems and hold files larger than FAT32's 4 GB per-file limit.
Karte 293
Frage
Which values must be correct in a manual IPv4 client configuration?
Antwort
The IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server settings must fit the network. A wrong value can break local or internet access.
Karte 294
Frage
How do FileVault and Keychain serve different security jobs on macOS?
Antwort
FileVault encrypts the startup disk; Keychain stores passwords, certificates, and keys. Neither replaces good account security or backups.
Karte 295
Frage
What should you verify before booting an installer from USB media?
Antwort
Verify the media is trusted and bootable, then select the correct temporary boot device. Also confirm the firmware mode matches the planned partition style.
Karte 296
Frage
Which Windows console is best for checking a device's driver status or hardware error code?
Antwort
Device Manager. It shows detected hardware, driver details, disabled devices, and device error codes.
Karte 297
Frage
When is Windows Enterprise a better fit than Pro?
Antwort
Use Enterprise for centrally managed organizations that need its additional security, deployment, and control features. It is licensed for organizational use rather than a typical retail PC.
Karte 298
Frage
How does a domain differ from a workgroup for Windows client management?
Antwort
A domain provides centralized identity and policy; a workgroup manages accounts separately on each PC. Shared resources must match the chosen model.
Karte 299
Frage
Which command shows active network connections and listening ports on Windows?
Antwort
netstat. Use its documented options to include process IDs or numeric addresses when needed.
Karte 300
Frage
Which Windows tool runs a program or script on a trigger or schedule?
Antwort
Task Scheduler. Use it for defined triggers such as a time, startup, sign-in, or event.
Karte 301
Frage
What must be assigned before a user can legally use many cloud productivity apps?
Antwort
The correct service license. Installation alone does not grant an account access to licensed features.
Karte 302
Frage
What do /Applications, /Users, /Library, and /System hold on macOS?
Antwort
They hold installed apps, user home folders, shared support data, and protected system components, respectively. A user's own Library sits inside that user's home folder.
Karte 303
Frage
What path format directly identifies a Windows network share?
Antwort
A UNC path such as \\server\share. A mapped drive gives that share a drive letter for convenience.
Karte 304
Frage
Why can a 32-bit-only dependency block an otherwise capable 64-bit system?
Antwort
The application may rely on an unsupported 32-bit component or driver. Confirm the complete dependency chain, not just the CPU architecture.
Karte 305
Frage
Which file systems are common on Linux desktops and servers?
Antwort
ext4 and XFS. Both are Linux-native choices; support for features and repair tools depends on the distribution and workload.
Karte 306
Frage
What workload is Windows Pro for Workstations aimed at?
Antwort
High-end professional hardware and demanding workloads. It adds support intended for workstation-class processors, memory, and storage features.
Karte 307
Frage
Why synchronize identity between an organization and a cloud productivity service?
Antwort
It keeps user accounts and access aligned with the organization's identity source. Provisioning and removal can then follow the user's lifecycle.
Karte 308
Frage
When should you try a repair installation or recovery environment?
Antwort
Use it when the current OS is damaged but preserving the installation is still reasonable. Back up recoverable data before making larger changes.
Karte 309
Frage
Which Windows command traces the router hops toward a destination?
Antwort
tracert. Use pathping when you also need sampled latency and loss information across the route.
Karte 310
Frage
Why should mobile apps come from the platform's trusted store or an approved enterprise source?
Antwort
Trusted sources provide stronger publisher, signing, and review checks. Sideloading from an unknown source raises the risk of a malicious or altered app.
Karte 311
Frage
What is distinctive about a Windows N edition?
Antwort
It omits certain built-in media technologies. An application that depends on those components may need Microsoft's media feature package.
Karte 312
Frage
Which partition style is the normal choice for a modern UEFI system?
Antwort
GPT. It supports modern UEFI booting, large disks, and more partitions than legacy MBR.
Karte 313
Frage
What should you confirm when setting up a cloud storage sync folder?
Antwort
Confirm the account, selected folders, local disk impact, sharing rules, and whether files remain available offline.
Karte 314
Frage
When does a dedicated GPU matter more than integrated graphics?
Antwort
It matters when the application requires more graphics performance or dedicated VRAM than the integrated GPU can provide.
Karte 315
Frage
How do chmod and chown differ on Linux?
Antwort
chmod changes permission bits; chown changes file ownership. Verify the target and use elevated rights only when required.
Karte 316
Frage
Which command checks a Windows volume's file-system structure for errors?
Antwort
chkdsk. Review its options before requesting repairs because a repair may need exclusive access or a restart.
Karte 317
Frage
What is the difference between partitioning and formatting a drive?
Antwort
Partitioning defines logical regions on the drive; formatting creates a file system inside a partition. Both can affect existing data, so confirm the target first.
Karte 318
Frage
What does a client VPN connection provide?
Antwort
It creates an encrypted path to a remote private network. The user still needs valid authentication and authorization for its resources.
Karte 319
Frage
Which Linux package managers are common on Debian-based and Fedora-based systems?
Antwort
apt is common on Debian and Ubuntu; dnf is common on Fedora and related systems. Use authorized sudo elevation for administrative package changes instead of routine root login.
Karte 320
Frage
When should you use Performance Monitor instead of only Task Manager?
Antwort
Use Performance Monitor when you need counters collected over time. Task Manager is better for a quick live snapshot.
Karte 321
Frage
Which Windows command-line tool manages disks, partitions, and volumes?
Antwort
diskpart. Select and verify the exact disk before any destructive command.
Karte 322
Frage
Which firmware and security components are central to Windows 11 hardware eligibility?
Antwort
UEFI with Secure Boot capability and a supported TPM 2.0 are central requirements. The processor, RAM, and storage must also meet Microsoft's current requirements.
Karte 323
Frage
What should you verify before a mobile OS upgrade?
Antwort
Check device support, free storage, battery or power, network access, app compatibility, and a current backup.
Karte 324
Frage
Why mark a Windows connection as metered?
Antwort
It tells Windows to limit some background transfers on a connection with a data cap or high cost. Updates and cloud sync may behave differently.
Karte 325
Frage
Which file system is designed for current Apple storage devices?
Antwort
APFS. It is Apple's modern file system for macOS and other Apple platforms.
Karte 326
Frage
Which Linux commands distinguish free filesystem space from a directory's space use?
Antwort
df reports filesystem free space; du estimates space used by files and directories. Use both when tracking down a full disk.
Karte 327
Frage
What belongs in an OS upgrade preflight check?
Antwort
Back up user data and settings, then verify hardware, applications, drivers, storage, licensing, and the supported upgrade path.
Karte 328
Frage
Why should Windows show known file extensions during support work?
Antwort
Visible extensions make file types easier to verify and help expose misleading names such as invoice.pdf.exe.
Karte 329
Frage
What is the safest source for an application installer?
Antwort
Use the vendor's trusted store or official download channel. Verify the publisher, signature, or published hash when available.
Karte 330
Frage
Which Windows command is built for reliable folder copying with restart and mirror options?
Antwort
robocopy. Treat mirror or purge options carefully because they can delete destination files that are absent from the source.
Karte 331
Frage
Why should you verify the supported Windows edition upgrade path before starting?
Antwort
Not every source edition can upgrade directly to every target edition. An unsupported path may require a clean install instead.
Karte 332
Frage
Which Windows tool helps isolate startup problems by controlling boot and service options?
Antwort
System Configuration (msconfig). Use selective startup for diagnosis, then restore the intended configuration after testing.
Karte 333
Frage
What should a technician test before rolling out cloud videoconferencing?
Antwort
Test supported devices, camera and microphone permissions, network capacity, sign-in, and any organization policy.
Karte 334
Frage
What does an operating system reaching end of life mean for support?
Antwort
The vendor no longer provides normal support or security updates. Plan a supported upgrade or replacement instead of treating the old system as safe indefinitely.
Karte 335
Frage
Which Windows command checks protected system files and replaces damaged copies?
Antwort
sfc /scannow. Run it from an elevated terminal and review the result before deciding the next repair step.
Karte 336
Frage
What is the purpose of a Microsoft Management Console snap-in?
Antwort
It adds a focused administrative tool to an MMC console. Event Viewer, Local Users and Groups, and Certificate Manager are common examples.
Karte 337
Frage
What is the purpose of a mobile configuration profile?
Antwort
It applies managed settings such as accounts, certificates, restrictions, and security rules. Install profiles only from an authorized administrator or trusted provider.
Karte 338
Frage
What is ReFS mainly designed to improve on supported Windows systems?
Antwort
Storage resilience and data integrity. ReFS is useful for supported data workloads, but it is not a universal replacement for an NTFS Windows boot volume.
Karte 339
Frage
Why pilot a business application before a broad rollout?
Antwort
A pilot exposes device, network, workflow, licensing, and compatibility effects on a small group before they reach everyone.
Karte 340
Frage
Why check sharing permissions before moving a document into a collaboration workspace?
Antwort
The move may change who can read or edit it. Confirm the intended audience, link settings, ownership, and version history.
Karte 341
Frage
Which physical control stops a vehicle from driving close to a protected entrance?
Antwort
Bollards. They create a physical barrier while still allowing pedestrian access.
Karte 342
Frage
What is the main sign that a message may be phishing?
Antwort
It tries to push you into revealing data, opening a file, or following a link under false pretenses. Verify the request through a known channel.
Karte 343
Frage
What protects workstation data if a powered-off drive is stolen?
Antwort
Data-at-rest encryption, such as BitLocker or FileVault. Store recovery keys through an approved process.
Karte 344
Frage
What is the first step in a suspected malware case?
Antwort
Investigate and verify the symptoms. Record what happened and rule out ordinary faults before declaring the system infected.
Karte 345
Frage
What is the purpose of an access control vestibule?
Antwort
It allows one controlled door to close before the next opens. This reduces tailgating into a secure area.
Karte 346
Frage
How do spear phishing and whaling differ from broad phishing?
Antwort
Spear phishing targets a specific person or group; whaling targets senior or high-value people. Both use tailored context to appear credible.
Karte 347
Frage
Which password properties matter most for normal user accounts?
Antwort
Use long, unique passwords and store them in an approved password manager. Complexity and expiration rules should follow current organization policy.
Karte 348
Frage
Why is a normal format not enough before transferring a drive with sensitive data?
Antwort
A standard format mainly rebuilds file-system structures and may leave recoverable data. Use an approved wipe, secure erase, encryption-key destruction, or physical destruction method.
Karte 349
Frage
What makes a Trojan different from a computer virus?
Antwort
A Trojan pretends to be legitimate so the user installs or runs it. A virus attaches its code to a host file or boot area and replicates when that code runs.
Karte 350
Frage
Why combine a badge reader with a biometric check at a sensitive door?
Antwort
The combination verifies something the person has and something they are. It is stronger than either factor alone.
Karte 351
Frage
What does a BIOS or UEFI password protect?
Antwort
It limits unauthorized firmware changes or startup access. It does not encrypt files on the drive.
Karte 352
Frage
Which phishing names apply to voice calls, text messages, and malicious QR codes?
Antwort
Vishing uses voice, smishing uses SMS or messaging, and QR phishing uses a code to hide the destination. Verify the request before acting.
Karte 353
Frage
What should you do once a malware infection is reasonably confirmed?
Antwort
Quarantine the device from networks and shared storage. Preserve any evidence required by policy while limiting further spread.
Karte 354
Frage
Which malware hides deeply in a system to preserve privileged access?
Antwort
A rootkit. Because it can conceal processes or changes, trusted offline scanning or reimaging may be required.
Karte 355
Frage
What simple action protects an unattended signed-in workstation?
Antwort
Lock the screen. Use an automatic timeout as a backup, and log off when the session is no longer needed.
Karte 356
Frage
What do cameras, guards, alarms, lighting, and motion sensors contribute to physical security?
Antwort
They deter, detect, record, or respond to unauthorized activity. They work best as layers rather than a single control.
Karte 357
Frage
What attack occurs when someone watches a user enter sensitive information?
Antwort
Shoulder surfing. Privacy screens, careful positioning, and awareness reduce the risk.
Karte 358
Frage
How should you verify a browser download before running it?
Antwort
Use a trusted source, confirm the publisher or signature, and compare a published hash when available. A matching hash proves integrity, not that the publisher is trustworthy.
Karte 359
Frage
What does a computer virus need in order to spread?
Antwort
A virus attaches to a host file or boot area and spreads when that infected code runs. A boot-sector virus targets startup data.
Karte 360
Frage
When is a secure erase preferable to physical destruction?
Antwort
Use a verified secure erase when the storage device will be reused and the method fits its media type. Validate the result before reassignment.
Karte 361
Frage
How does tailgating differ from impersonation?
Antwort
Tailgating follows an authorized person into a restricted area; impersonation claims a false identity to gain trust or access.
Karte 362
Frage
What does the principle of least privilege require?
Antwort
Give an account only the access needed for its current job, for only as long as needed. Review and remove unnecessary rights.
Karte 363
Frage
What does spoofing change to make a message, host, or caller look trusted?
Antwort
It forges identifying information such as an address, name, number, or source. Verify identity through a separate trusted signal.
Karte 364
Frage
Which Wi-Fi security protocol is the preferred modern choice when all devices support it?
Antwort
WPA3. Use its strongest supported mode and a strong credential or enterprise authentication.
Karte 365
Frage
How does a DDoS attack differ from a DoS attack?
Antwort
A DDoS attack uses many distributed sources; a DoS attack may come from one source. Both aim to exhaust availability.
Karte 366
Frage
What assumption drives a Zero Trust access decision?
Antwort
No user, device, or network location is trusted automatically. Verify identity, device state, context, and authorization for each access decision.
Karte 367
Frage
Which physical methods make a hard drive unusable?
Antwort
Approved shredding or drilling can destroy the platters and mechanism. Follow safety, environmental, and evidence-handling rules.
Karte 368
Frage
How do account lockout and account expiration solve different problems?
Antwort
Lockout slows repeated failed sign-ins; expiration ends access after a defined date. Set both according to business policy.
Karte 369
Frage
Which malware categories secretly monitor a user's activity?
Antwort
Spyware collects activity or data; a keylogger records input; stalkerware is used for covert surveillance of a person.
Karte 370
Frage
What wireless threat presents a convincing fake access point?
Antwort
An evil twin. Users may connect to it because its network name resembles a trusted one.
Karte 371
Frage
What are the first security changes on a new SOHO router?
Antwort
Change default administrator credentials, update firmware, and save a known-good configuration. Use a unique management password.
Karte 372
Frage
What should you do when a browser reports an invalid certificate on a sensitive site?
Antwort
Stop and verify the address, system time, and certificate details. Do not bypass the warning for sign-in or payment data.
Karte 373
Frage
What does an access control list decide?
Antwort
An ACL states which identities or traffic are allowed or denied on a resource. Keep entries specific and review inherited rules.
Karte 374
Frage
Which malware blocks access to data and demands payment?
Antwort
Ransomware. Isolate the device quickly and recover from known-good backups rather than assuming payment will restore data.
Karte 375
Frage
How should router management access be exposed?
Antwort
Allow it only from trusted interfaces and secure protocols, ideally from the local network. Place the router where unauthorized people cannot reset or replace it.
Karte 376
Frage
How should Windows restore points be handled during an approved malware-removal workflow?
Antwort
Temporarily disable System Restore when the procedure calls for it, then re-enable it and create a clean restore point after remediation.
Karte 377
Frage
Which built-in accounts or credentials should be changed or disabled during setup?
Antwort
Disable the guest account when unused and replace default administrator names or passwords where policy requires it. Never leave vendor defaults active.
Karte 378
Frage
What happens in an on-path attack?
Antwort
The attacker positions themselves between communicating parties to observe or alter traffic. Strong certificate validation and encryption help prevent it.
Karte 379
Frage
How do browser patches and extension controls work together?
Antwort
Patches fix browser flaws; extension controls reduce code from untrusted add-ons. Keep only approved, necessary extensions.
Karte 380
Frage
How should a guest wireless network be separated from trusted devices?
Antwort
Use a separate guest network with strong encryption and client isolation. Do not grant it access to internal files or management interfaces.
Karte 381
Frage
Why disable AutoRun and unused services?
Antwort
They remove automatic execution paths and unnecessary attack surface. Confirm a service is not required before disabling it.
Karte 382
Frage
Which storage media can degaussing sanitize?
Antwort
Magnetic media such as compatible hard drives and tapes, but only with an approved degausser rated for that exact medium. Flash storage such as SSDs cannot be sanitized this way. A drive becoming unusable does not prove its data was sanitized; follow and validate the approved procedure.
Karte 383
Frage
Why update anti-malware tools before the main removal scan?
Antwort
Current definitions and engines can recognize newer threats. Scan in a safer environment, such as Safe Mode or approved recovery media, when appropriate.
Karte 384
Frage
What makes authentication multifactor?
Antwort
It uses factors from at least two different categories, such as a password plus a hardware token or biometric. Two passwords are still one factor type.
Karte 385
Frage
Which encryption choice is appropriate for a WPA2 network?
Antwort
AES-based CCMP. Avoid selecting older TKIP just to keep obsolete clients connected.
Karte 386
Frage
What is the basic endpoint patching sequence?
Antwort
Inventory supported systems, deploy tested OS and application updates, verify success, and remediate failures. Endpoint security definitions need updates too.
Karte 387
Frage
Why should daily work use a standard account instead of an administrator account?
Antwort
A standard account limits what mistakes or malware can change. Elevate only the specific approved task through UAC or Run as administrator.
Karte 388
Frage
When is reimaging safer than continuing to clean an infected PC?
Antwort
Reimage when trust cannot be restored, the malware is deeply embedded, or policy requires a known-good build. Restore only verified clean data.
Karte 389
Frage
Why is TKIP a poor choice for a new wireless network?
Antwort
TKIP is a legacy protocol with known security limits. Replace incompatible clients and use WPA2-AES or WPA3.
Karte 390
Frage
When is incineration an acceptable data-destruction method?
Antwort
Only through an authorized facility that can handle the material safely and meet legal and environmental requirements.
Karte 391
Frage
What does private browsing protect on a shared computer?
Antwort
It reduces local history and cookie retention after the session. It does not hide activity from the network or service, so sign out and clear sensitive data as policy requires.
Karte 392
Frage
How does a dictionary attack differ from a general brute-force attack?
Antwort
A dictionary attack tries likely words and known password patterns; brute force systematically tries possibilities. Long, unique passwords and rate limits make both harder.
Karte 393
Frage
How do SSO and SAML commonly work together?
Antwort
SSO lets one sign-in reach multiple services; SAML can carry trusted authentication claims between an identity provider and a service.
Karte 394
Frage
Why disable UPnP and unused inbound ports when they are not required?
Antwort
They can create unnecessary paths into the network. Open only the specific service and source access the business needs.
Karte 395
Frage
What symptom often points to an unauthorized cryptominer?
Antwort
Unexplained sustained CPU or GPU use, heat, fan noise, or power consumption. Confirm the process before removal.
Karte 396
Frage
What should an outsourced destruction vendor provide?
Antwort
A traceable certificate of destruction or recycling tied to the assets. Confirm the vendor and chain of custody before release.
Karte 397
Frage
When is just-in-time privileged access safer than a standing admin account?
Antwort
It grants elevated rights only for an approved task and limited time. Privileged access management can control and record that elevation.
Karte 398
Frage
What follow-up checks belong after malware removal?
Antwort
Run updated scans, patch the system, schedule ongoing scans and updates, and verify normal behavior before reconnecting fully.
Karte 399
Frage
Which input flaws commonly enable SQL injection and cross-site scripting?
Antwort
SQL injection reaches a database through unsafe query input; XSS injects script into content a browser renders. Use parameterized queries for SQL and context-aware output encoding for browser content.
Karte 400
Frage
Which mobile controls help after a managed phone is lost?
Antwort
A locator, remote lock or wipe, device encryption, and a current remote backup. Test enrollment before the device disappears.
Karte 401
Frage
Which control is designed to detect or block sensitive data from leaving approved boundaries?
Antwort
Data loss prevention, or DLP. It applies rules to data in use, in motion, or at rest according to policy.
Karte 402
Frage
When is port forwarding appropriate on a small network?
Antwort
Use it only for an approved service that must receive inbound traffic. Prefer a screened subnet or other isolation for exposed systems, and document the narrow rule.
Karte 403
Frage
Why can fileless malware be hard to detect?
Antwort
It relies heavily on memory and legitimate system tools instead of leaving a normal executable on disk. Behavior monitoring is especially useful.
Karte 404
Frage
Why are unpatched, end-of-life, or unmanaged BYOD systems a security risk?
Antwort
They may lack current fixes, controls, or visibility. Enforce support and access policy instead of assuming a connected device is safe.
Karte 405
Frage
What must guide disposal of batteries, storage devices, and electronics?
Antwort
Applicable data-retention, privacy, environmental, and recycling rules. Record asset disposition according to policy.
Karte 406
Frage
What should an email security gateway do before a message reaches the user?
Antwort
Filter suspicious senders, links, attachments, and spoofing signals. Users should still verify unusual requests through a known channel.
Karte 407
Frage
Which service commonly provides centralized authentication for enterprise Wi-Fi?
Antwort
RADIUS. It validates users or devices against a central identity source; TACACS+ is more commonly associated with network-device administration.
Karte 408
Frage
How does MDM reduce risk on BYOD and corporate-owned mobile devices?
Antwort
MDM applies profiles, screen-lock rules, updates, app controls, and remote actions. The policy should clearly separate company requirements from personal privacy.
Karte 409
Frage
How does a potentially unwanted program differ from clearly malicious malware?
Antwort
A PUP may be installed with nominal consent but still adds unwanted behavior, such as aggressive ads or browser changes. Remove it through approved tools and review bundled installers.
Karte 410
Frage
What should the technician explain to the user after a malware incident?
Antwort
Explain the likely entry point and practical prevention steps, such as safer links, trusted downloads, updates, and prompt reporting.
Karte 411
Frage
What is the first useful action after a Windows blue-screen crash?
Antwort
Record the stop code and recent changes, then check relevant logs and dumps. Do not replace hardware from the blue screen alone.
Karte 412
Frage
What should you try first when one mobile app will not launch?
Antwort
Force-close the app, reopen it, and check for an update. If the problem persists, restart the device and verify the app still supports the OS.
Karte 413
Frage
What should you do after finding an unapproved app already installed on a managed phone?
Antwort
Document it and follow policy to block or remove it through the approved mobile-management process. Do not open it for testing; if compromise is plausible, contain the phone and escalate before wiping evidence.
Karte 414
Frage
What should you do if a possibly infected PC suddenly cannot reach the network?
Antwort
Check ordinary link and IP status, but keep the PC isolated if compromise is plausible. Do not weaken the firewall just to restore access.
Karte 415
Frage
Where should you start when Windows feels broadly slow?
Antwort
Check Task Manager for CPU, memory, disk, and startup pressure. Correlate the bottleneck with recent apps, updates, storage, and temperature.
Karte 416
Frage
How should you handle a mobile app that repeatedly crashes while in use?
Antwort
Reproduce the trigger, free needed resources, update the app and OS, and clear supported app cache or reinstall after protecting its data.
Karte 417
Frage
Why should developer mode be disabled on a normal user's mobile device?
Antwort
It can expose debugging, installation, or control paths that normal operation does not need. Enable it only for an authorized task and turn it off afterward.
Karte 418
Frage
What do unfamiliar security alerts on the Windows desktop require?
Antwort
Verify which installed product or process created them. Capture the message and avoid clicking it until its source is trusted.
Karte 419
Frage
What should you try when Windows reaches recovery but not the normal desktop?
Antwort
Use Startup Repair or Safe Mode to isolate the boot problem. Back up accessible data before risky repair steps.
Karte 420
Frage
What commonly blocks a mobile app update?
Antwort
Low storage, poor connectivity, account or store issues, device policy, or OS incompatibility. Read the exact store error before changing settings.
Karte 421
Frage
What security boundary changes when a phone is rooted or jailbroken?
Antwort
Platform protections and app isolation may be bypassed. Treat the device as noncompliant and restore it through an approved process.
Karte 422
Frage
How can you recognize a fake antivirus warning?
Antwort
It often uses urgent claims, an unfamiliar brand, or a demand to click, call, or pay. Open the approved security tool directly instead of using the alert.
Karte 423
Frage
What does a firmware message saying no operating system was found suggest checking first?
Antwort
Check whether the system drive is detected and first in the intended boot order. Then inspect its connection, partition, and boot data.
Karte 424
Frage
What should you verify when a mobile app will not install?
Antwort
Verify the source, device and OS compatibility, free storage, account licensing, and management policy.
Karte 425
Frage
What clues suggest a mobile app is spoofing a legitimate one?
Antwort
A mismatched publisher, unusual icon or name, excessive permissions, unexpected sign-in, or an unofficial source. Verify the real listing before entering credentials.
Karte 426
Frage
What can unexplained renamed or missing personal files indicate?
Antwort
Malware, ransomware, account misuse, sync trouble, or storage failure are possible. Isolate the scope and preserve evidence before recovery attempts.
Karte 427
Frage
What evidence helps separate thermal shutdowns from power failures?
Antwort
Review temperatures, fan operation, vents, power events, and whether the failure follows load. Test one likely cause at a time.
Karte 428
Frage
Where should you start with a generally slow phone or tablet?
Antwort
Check free storage, active downloads, background apps, battery condition, and pending updates. Restart before considering a reset.
Karte 429
Frage
What should unexplained high mobile network traffic make you inspect?
Antwort
Inspect per-app data use, recent installations, cloud sync, hotspots, and management alerts. Isolate the device if malicious traffic is plausible.
Karte 430
Frage
What does sudden inability to open many files suggest checking?
Antwort
Check extensions, ransom notes, permissions, storage health, and backup status. Widespread encryption may indicate ransomware.
Karte 431
Frage
What should you inspect when a Windows service will not start?
Antwort
Check its startup type, dependencies, logon account, permissions, and Event Viewer message. Fix the recorded cause rather than repeatedly forcing a start.
Karte 432
Frage
A mobile OS update downloads but fails verification or installation. What should you try before resetting the device?
Antwort
Record the exact error and check free storage first. Then use the OS vendor's supported controls to remove the incomplete update and download a fresh copy with reliable power and a stable network connection; use recovery only if the normal updater still fails.
Karte 433
Frage
How can security trouble cause degraded mobile response time?
Antwort
A malicious or unwanted app may consume CPU, storage, or network resources. Compare resource use with recent apps before removing anything.
Karte 434
Frage
Where should you investigate unwanted Windows notifications?
Antwort
Check notification settings, browser site permissions, startup apps, and recently installed software. Remove the source rather than only muting the symptom.
Karte 435
Frage
How should you isolate an application that keeps crashing?
Antwort
Confirm the scope, reproduce it, check logs, update the app, and test its plug-ins or profile. Reinstall only after preserving needed settings and data.
Karte 436
Frage
How do you find the likely cause of sudden mobile battery drain?
Antwort
Review battery usage by app and system feature, then compare with recent updates, signal conditions, screen use, and battery health.
Karte 437
Frage
What should you check after an unexpected mobile data-limit notification?
Antwort
Review per-app usage and the billing period, then inspect background sync, hotspot use, updates, and unknown apps.
Karte 438
Frage
Why can repeated OS update failures be a security clue?
Antwort
Malware may block updates, though storage, network, or service faults are also common. Investigate the exact error and other symptoms before deciding.
Karte 439
Frage
What should a low-memory warning lead you to inspect?
Antwort
Inspect memory pressure, runaway processes, page-file health, and workload requirements. Closing one app may help briefly but does not explain repeated warnings.
Karte 440
Frage
What is a useful first isolation step for random mobile reboots?
Antwort
Remove or disable the most recent app or configuration change, update the OS, and check storage and temperature. Back up before a reset.
Karte 441
Frage
What security setting can cause limited mobile internet access even with a good signal?
Antwort
A bad VPN, proxy, DNS, content-filtering, or management profile can restrict traffic. Compare the configuration with approved policy.
Karte 442
Frage
What is a useful first check for random browser pop-ups?
Antwort
Inspect site-notification permissions, extensions, startup pages, and recently installed software. Do not click inside the pop-up.
Karte 443
Frage
What is a sensible first response to a USB controller resource warning?
Antwort
Disconnect nonessential USB devices, remove unpowered hubs, and check Device Manager. Then update the controller or chipset driver if the evidence supports it.
Karte 444
Frage
What is the normal first fix for a Bluetooth pairing problem?
Antwort
Confirm both devices are discoverable and compatible, then forget the old pairing and pair again. Check distance, battery, and interference.
Karte 445
Frage
What should you do if normal connectivity checks pass but a phone still has no internet after a suspicious app install?
Antwort
Isolate the phone, remove or quarantine the suspicious app through the approved process, and inspect VPN, proxy, DNS, and profile changes.
Karte 446
Frage
When does a browser certificate warning point to more than a bad website?
Antwort
Warnings across several known-good sites can indicate wrong system time, interception, a proxy, or a trust-store problem. Compare on a trusted network and device.
Karte 447
Frage
What should you do when instability begins right after a driver update?
Antwort
Roll back or replace that driver with a known-good supported version. Confirm stability before changing another component.
Karte 448
Frage
What should you check when one phone cannot join a known Wi-Fi network?
Antwort
Confirm the network and password, toggle Wi-Fi, forget and rejoin the network, then compare with another device before resetting network settings.
Karte 449
Frage
What commonly causes a sudden flood of ads across a mobile device?
Antwort
Adware or a PUP is likely, especially after a recent install. Identify the responsible app instead of tapping the ads.
Karte 450
Frage
What settings should you inspect when browser searches redirect unexpectedly?
Antwort
Inspect the default search provider, home page, extensions, proxy, DNS, and hosts file. Record unauthorized changes before correcting them.
Karte 451
Frage
How can you test whether a slow Windows sign-in is tied to one user profile?
Antwort
Sign in with a known-good local profile and compare. Then inspect profile corruption, startup items, scripts, and redirected resources.
Karte 452
Frage
What should you check when NFC works only intermittently?
Antwort
Confirm NFC is enabled, unlock the device if required, align the NFC areas closely, and remove a case that may block the signal.
Karte 453
Frage
How should you respond to a mobile pop-up claiming the device is infected?
Antwort
Treat it as a likely fake security warning. Do not tap its button; close the source, inspect recent apps or browser data, and scan with approved tools.
Karte 454
Frage
What should you compare when mobile data fails but Wi-Fi works?
Antwort
Check airplane mode, cellular enablement, signal, data limits, SIM or eSIM state, carrier settings, and any provider outage.
Karte 455
Frage
What is the priority when personal files appear to have leaked from a mobile device?
Antwort
Contain the device and affected accounts, preserve relevant evidence, and follow the incident process. Revoke exposed sessions or credentials from a trusted device.
Karte 456
Frage
Why might a mobile screen refuse to rotate?
Antwort
Rotation lock may be enabled, the app may not support that orientation, or a motion sensor may be stuck. Check the setting before hardware diagnosis.
Karte 457
Frage
What can unexpected mobile actions, permission prompts, or settings changes indicate?
Antwort
An unauthorized or compromised app may be acting on the device. Review recent installs, permissions, profiles, and account activity.
Karte 458
Frage
What makes a browser extension suspicious?
Antwort
An unknown publisher, broad permissions, forced installation, hidden controls, or behavior unrelated to its stated job. Remove it through policy and inspect related changes.
Karte 459
Frage
What should you verify when a Windows update repeatedly fails?
Antwort
Check free space, restart state, network access, update history, and the specific error. Apply the vendor's targeted repair steps for that code.
Karte 460
Frage
When should you reset a mobile device during troubleshooting?
Antwort
Reset only after narrower fixes fail and a current backup exists. Confirm account credentials and management enrollment needed for recovery.
Karte 461
Frage
What causes system time to drift repeatedly after shutdown?
Antwort
A failing CMOS battery is one possibility; a bad time source or synchronization setting is another. Check when the drift occurs before replacing anything.
Karte 462
Frage
What PC settings can malware alter to reroute traffic?
Antwort
Proxy, DNS, browser, and hosts-file settings are common targets. Compare them with the approved network configuration.
Karte 463
Frage
How can a clean boot help with a Windows startup problem?
Antwort
It starts Windows with a reduced set of nonessential services and startup items. Re-enable items in groups to identify the conflict.
Karte 464
Frage
How should you troubleshoot a browser that has become much slower than the rest of the PC?
Antwort
Test without unneeded extensions, clear only appropriate cache data, check browser tasks, and compare a clean profile. Scan if the behavior is suspicious.
Karte 465
Frage
What is the safest next step when several mobile security symptoms appear together?
Antwort
Disconnect or contain the device, document the symptoms, and escalate through the approved security process. Avoid wiping evidence unless the response plan authorizes it.
Karte 466
Frage
Which details belong at the start of a support ticket?
Antwort
Record the user, device, contact method, affected service, and a clear issue description. Add the time and business impact when relevant.
Karte 467
Frage
When is sfc /scannow a useful Windows repair step?
Antwort
Use it when protected system files may be damaged. Run it elevated and follow the result instead of assuming it fixes every boot or application fault.
Karte 468
Frage
What should you do before running a repair that may change a failing Windows disk?
Antwort
Protect recoverable data first, then check drive health and file-system evidence. A repair tool is not a substitute for replacing failing storage.
Karte 469
Frage
What is the right overall response to convincing PC security symptoms?
Antwort
Contain the system, document evidence, follow the malware or incident procedure, and restore trust with approved tools or a known-good image.
Karte 470
Frage
What does a full backup contain?
Antwort
A full backup copies all selected data in that backup set. It is simple to restore but usually takes the most time and space to create.
Karte 471
Frage
Where should a technician look for handling and disposal guidance for a chemical product?
Antwort
Use its current Safety Data Sheet and local policy. Follow the listed protective, spill, storage, and disposal instructions.
Karte 472
Frage
What should a change request state before technical planning begins?
Antwort
State the purpose, scope, change type, affected systems, owner, and desired date. A clear request makes impact and approval review possible.
Karte 473
Frage
What does active listening look like in a support conversation?
Antwort
Let the customer finish, ask focused questions, and restate the problem to confirm understanding. Avoid interrupting or jumping to a diagnosis.
Karte 474
Frage
What does chain of custody record during an incident?
Antwort
It records who collected, handled, transferred, stored, and accessed evidence, with dates and purpose. This supports integrity and accountability.
Karte 475
Frage
What makes a ticket issue description useful to another technician?
Antwort
It states expected and actual behavior, exact symptoms, scope, timing, and reproducible steps without guesses presented as facts.
Karte 476
Frage
What does an incremental backup copy?
Antwort
It copies data changed since the most recent backup of any type. Backup runs are small, but recovery may need the last full plus every later incremental.
Karte 477
Frage
How should a technician respond to an angry customer?
Antwort
Stay calm, acknowledge the impact, clarify the facts, and explain realistic next steps. Do not argue, blame, or dismiss the concern.
Karte 478
Frage
Why does order of volatility matter when collecting incident evidence?
Antwort
More temporary data can disappear first. Follow the response plan to capture volatile information before less volatile storage when authorized.
Karte 479
Frage
Which script type is native to traditional Windows batch command processing?
Antwort
A .bat file. VBScript uses .vbs for older Windows automation; review either script before running it with elevated rights.
Karte 480
Frage
How do ventilation and dust control affect equipment reliability?
Antwort
Clear airflow removes heat; controlled dust cleanup prevents blocked vents and conductive buildup. Use equipment-safe compressed air or vacuums.
Karte 481
Frage
How should severity and escalation be recorded?
Antwort
Tie severity to impact and urgency, then use the defined escalation level. Do not inflate it just to move the ticket faster.
Karte 482
Frage
Why create a forensic copy instead of investigating the original drive directly?
Antwort
A verified copy preserves the original evidence and lets analysis proceed with less risk of alteration. Follow authorization and incident policy.
Karte 483
Frage
When is RDP a suitable remote-access choice?
Antwort
Use RDP for an authorized Windows desktop session over a protected path. Limit exposed services, require strong authentication, and follow session policy.
Karte 484
Frage
How should an ESD strap be used during internal PC work?
Antwort
Attach it to an approved ground point while working on powered-down equipment. Pair it with an ESD-safe work surface when available.
Karte 485
Frage
What protection does a UPS add beyond a surge suppressor?
Antwort
A UPS provides temporary battery power and usually power conditioning, giving equipment time to ride through a brief outage or shut down safely.
Karte 486
Frage
What should progress and resolution notes contain?
Antwort
Record tests, results, changes, timestamps, and the confirmed outcome. Another technician should be able to continue without repeating work.
Karte 487
Frage
Which data categories usually require stricter handling and retention rules?
Antwort
Payment data, government identifiers, personally identifiable information, and healthcare data. Apply the relevant law, contract, and business policy.
Karte 488
Frage
Which support tasks can AI assist without making the final decision?
Antwort
AI can help summarize tickets, draft user instructions, search approved knowledge, or suggest diagnostic paths. A technician must verify the result.
Karte 489
Frage
What is the first electrical-safety step before repairing a PC?
Antwort
Shut it down and disconnect power. Follow the device's service procedure because some components can retain hazardous energy.
Karte 490
Frage
How do SSH and VNC differ for remote support?
Antwort
SSH provides an encrypted command-line session; VNC shares a graphical desktop and needs its own secure transport and authentication configuration.
Karte 491
Frage
How should a technician set expectations for a repair?
Antwort
Give a realistic timeline, explain options and dependencies, and send status updates when the estimate changes.
Karte 492
Frage
Which script type gives Windows administrators structured access to system management?
Antwort
A PowerShell .ps1 script. Execution policy is not a malware boundary, so verify the source, signature, and contents.
Karte 493
Frage
What does a differential backup copy?
Antwort
It copies data changed since the last full backup. Recovery normally needs the last full and the latest differential.
Karte 494
Frage
Why do change plans need both a backup plan and a rollback plan?
Antwort
The backup protects data; the rollback returns the service to its prior state if the change fails. Define triggers and responsible staff before implementation.
Karte 495
Frage
How should loose components be handled and stored?
Antwort
Hold boards by the edges, avoid contacts, and place them in antistatic packaging on an ESD-safe surface.
Karte 496
Frage
Why monitor both temperature and humidity in an equipment room?
Antwort
Excess heat shortens component life; very low humidity raises static risk, while high humidity can cause condensation or corrosion.
Karte 497
Frage
What is a synthetic full backup?
Antwort
It combines a previous full backup with later backup data to create a new full on the backup system. The source does not need to resend every file.
Karte 498
Frage
How do an asset tag and a CMDB serve different support needs?
Antwort
The asset tag identifies the physical item; the CMDB records its configuration and relationships. Keep assignment, warranty, and licensing data current.
Karte 499
Frage
What should a technician verify before installing licensed software?
Antwort
Verify a valid license, permitted user or device scope, and any EULA or DRM limits. Personal, corporate, perpetual, and open-source licenses grant different rights.
Karte 500
Frage
Which script type is commonly used for shell automation on Linux and macOS?
Antwort
A .sh shell script. Its interpreter, permissions, quoting, and environment determine how it runs.
Karte 501
Frage
How do GFS rotation and the 3-2-1 backup rule differ?
Antwort
GFS rotates daily, weekly, and monthly backup generations. The 3-2-1 rule keeps three copies on two different media/storage types, with one copy offsite. GFS organizes retention over time; 3-2-1 spreads copies across storage locations and failure modes.
Karte 502
Frage
Which personal protective steps matter for lifting or dusty repair work?
Antwort
Use safe lifting technique and get help for heavy equipment; wear approved eye or breathing protection when the task creates those hazards.
Karte 503
Frage
What does a VPN add to a remote-management session?
Antwort
It creates an encrypted network path to private resources. The remote tool still needs secure configuration, authentication, and least-privilege access.
Karte 504
Frage
What policy questions should come before using AI at work?
Antwort
Check approved tools, allowed data, required disclosure, ownership rules, and whether the task permits AI assistance. Do not assume a public tool is approved.
Karte 505
Frage
Why should a technician avoid jargon when speaking with a customer?
Antwort
Plain language helps the customer understand choices and give informed answers. Use a technical term only when it adds clarity, then explain it.
Karte 506
Frage
What is the value of sandbox testing and peer review before a change?
Antwort
They expose technical mistakes and unexpected impact away from production. Record results and remaining risk.
Karte 507
Frage
What are practical entry-level uses for scripts in support work?
Antwort
Scripts can collect information, remap drives, install approved apps, start updates, restart systems, or run backups consistently. Python .py and JavaScript .js files are common choices when the environment supports them.
Karte 508
Frage
What is the benefit and main risk of an RMM platform?
Antwort
RMM can monitor and manage many endpoints centrally; compromise or misuse can reach many endpoints too. Protect the console with strong access controls, logging, and updates.
Karte 509
Frage
How should a technician handle a confident AI answer?
Antwort
Verify it against trusted evidence. AI can hallucinate, carry bias, miss context, or present outdated information fluently.
Karte 510
Frage
How do surges, brownouts, and blackouts differ?
Antwort
A surge is excess voltage, a brownout is reduced voltage, and a blackout is a loss of power. Match surge protection and UPS capacity to the equipment.
Karte 511
Frage
What must you review before running an unfamiliar support script?
Antwort
Review its source, inputs, privileges, target systems, resource use, network actions, error handling, and rollback. A script can spread malware or change many systems quickly.
Karte 512
Frage
How do an NDA and an acceptable use policy serve different purposes?
Antwort
An NDA restricts disclosure of protected information; an AUP defines permitted use of systems and data. Follow both along with incident and compliance rules.
Karte 513
Frage
When should a normal change wait even if the technical work is ready?
Antwort
Wait for required approval and an allowed maintenance window. Respect change freezes unless the approved emergency process applies.
Karte 514
Frage
Which support document should guide a repeatable task with an agreed method?
Antwort
Use the relevant SOP or checklist. Consult the SLA for service commitments and the knowledge base for reusable diagnosis or resolution guidance.
Karte 515
Frage
What should a technician do if arriving late is unavoidable?
Antwort
Contact the customer promptly, give an honest revised time, and keep the new commitment. Document service provided and follow up as promised.
Karte 516
Frage
What safety problems does good cable management prevent?
Antwort
It reduces trip hazards, blocked airflow, connector strain, and accidental disconnection. Keep cables clear of heat and emergency access.
Karte 517
Frage
How do you know a backup is usable?
Antwort
Test restores on a defined schedule. Verify data integrity and practice both overwrite recovery and recovery to an alternative location.
Karte 518
Frage
What closes a well-managed change?
Antwort
Verify the implementation, obtain required user acceptance, update documentation, and review the outcome. Trigger rollback if the defined failure criteria occur.
Karte 519
Frage
How should a technician handle private material visible on a customer's device?
Antwort
View only what the task requires, avoid copying or discussing it, and follow privacy policy. Maintain professional appearance and conduct in the customer's environment.
Karte 520
Frage
What data boundary applies when prompting a public AI service?
Antwort
Never send credentials or secrets to a public AI service. Keep private customer data, regulated data, proprietary code, and incident evidence out as well. An approved enterprise AI service is a separate case: use it only under the organization's data policy and contractual controls, and still never paste credentials or secrets.

A generic laptop and computer repair tools arranged on a dark technical workbench with abstract network lights.

520 Karten

CompTIA A+ 220-1201 & 220-1202 Flashcards: Core 1 and Core 2

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Über dieses Lernkartenset

CompTIA A+ 220-1201 & 220-1202 Flashcards: Core 1 and Core 2

What the cards practice

Learning order

Labs and PBQs

Scope, provenance, and reuse

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