FAA Part 107 Flashcards: Remote Pilot Knowledge Test Review
Review the current FAA Part 107 knowledge areas with concise recall, practical scenarios, airspace and weather interpretation, operating limits, and recency rules.
About this deck
Prepare for the FAA Remote Pilot knowledge test and keep core Part 107 decisions fresh. These 286 independently written cards cover every current ACS knowledge area, moving from foundational rules into airspace, weather reports, aircraft loading and performance, airport awareness, emergencies, operations over people, Remote ID, aeronautical decision-making, maintenance, and recurrent knowledge.
The cards practice rule-to-action, cue-to-meaning, code-to-interpretation, and short scenario-to-decision recall. Most prompts isolate one fact or decision; a few compact sets cover material learners naturally recall together, such as phonetic-alphabet chunks and radio phraseology. Unhelpful reverse variants and chart-dependent problems are excluded. The deterministic sequence teaches prerequisites before dependent ideas, interleaves the five public groups, and separates confusing variants. Initial certification and recurrent training are treated as separate paths, with current requirements reviewed against official sources on August 25, 2026. FAA-S-ACS-10B remains the current indexed topic guide; the current UAG Applicant Information Bulletin governs test distribution.
License scope: “Common knowledge · CC0 1.0” applies only to this deck’s independently written prompts, answers, examples, organization, and metadata, to the extent rights exist. It does not claim ownership of facts, laws, FAA names or publications, third-party marks, or source material.
Independent and unofficial; not affiliated with, endorsed by, or produced by the FAA, DOT, PSI, or any testing provider. No FAA or competitor test questions, answer choices, commercial-deck text, charts, logos, or third-party media were copied. Regulatory definitions and rules were independently condensed and may retain legally necessary terminology. Verify current requirements with the FAA certification path, Remote Pilot ACS, current UAG Applicant Information Bulletin, FAA study guide, and 14 CFR Part 107.
Cards in this deck
Card 1
Question
When does 14 CFR Part 107 generally apply?
Answer
It generally applies to civil operations of small unmanned aircraft in the United States that are not conducted under another authority, such as the limited recreational exception.
Card 2
Question
Who must receive the preflight operating briefing?
Answer
Everyone directly participating in the operation, including visual observers and people manipulating the controls. Cover conditions, roles, hazards, and normal and emergency procedures.
Card 3
Question
What is controlled airspace?
Answer
Airspace of defined dimensions where ATC service is provided according to the airspace classification. For Part 107, authorization depends on the specific class and area.
Card 4
Question
What is the basic difference between a weather observation and a forecast?
Answer
An observation reports conditions that exist now at a location; a forecast predicts conditions for a future period and area.
Card 5
Question
What is a small unmanned aircraft under Part 107?
Answer
An unmanned aircraft weighing less than 55 pounds at takeoff, including everything on board or attached.
Card 6
Question
What site conditions belong in a preflight assessment?
Answer
Weather, airspace, restrictions, people, moving vehicles, wildlife, structures, wires, launch and recovery areas, lighting, interference, and alternate landing areas.
Card 7
Question
Does being below maximum takeoff weight guarantee a safe takeoff?
Answer
No. Elevation, temperature, humidity, wind, launch area, obstacles, battery condition, and aircraft limits may require a lower weight.
Card 8
Question
What is the typical shape and purpose of Class B airspace?
Answer
Individually tailored layers around the nation's busiest airports, often resembling an upside-down wedding cake. Part 107 operations require prior authorization.
Card 9
Question
What control-link checks belong before takeoff?
Answer
Verify pairing, command response, antenna and frequency setup, interference risk, lost-link behavior, range needs, and crew communication.
Card 10
Question
What does a small unmanned aircraft system include?
Answer
The aircraft plus the communication links and components needed to control it safely and efficiently.
Card 11
Question
What does a METAR report?
Answer
Current surface weather at an airport or reporting station in a standard coded format.
Card 12
Question
When must a remote PIC be designated?
Answer
Before or during the flight. Every Part 107 operation must have a designated remote pilot in command.
Card 13
Question
What power and attachment checks belong before takeoff?
Answer
Confirm adequate battery or fuel, secure installation, correct payload and guards, unobstructed sensors and moving parts, and the intended configuration.
Card 14
Question
How does excess weight usually affect aircraft performance?
Answer
It reduces climb, ceiling, range, endurance, and maneuverability while increasing power demand and structural load.
Card 15
Question
Who has final authority for a Part 107 operation?
Answer
The designated remote PIC. That person is directly responsible for the operation and must ensure it complies with applicable rules.
Card 16
Question
What airport environment usually has Class C airspace?
Answer
An airport with an operating tower, radar approach control, and qualifying traffic volume. Part 107 operations require prior authorization.
Card 17
Question
What makes crew communication effective?
Answer
Agreed roles, plain callouts, immediate hazard reports, acknowledgment of critical instructions, and a clear transfer-of-control procedure.
Card 18
Question
What is a SPECI?
Answer
An unscheduled special surface-weather report issued when significant conditions change or other criteria are met.
Card 19
Question
May a noncertificated person manipulate the controls?
Answer
Yes, under the direct supervision of a qualified remote PIC who can immediately take direct control.
Card 20
Question
Does using a visual observer transfer remote-PIC responsibility?
Answer
No. The visual observer supports awareness, while the remote PIC remains responsible and must ensure effective coordination.
Card 21
Question
What condition must the small UAS be in before flight?
Answer
A condition for safe operation. The remote PIC must inspect it before each flight and stop if a known condition would make the operation unsafe.
Card 22
Question
What airport environment usually has Class D airspace?
Answer
Airspace around an airport with an operating control tower. Part 107 operations require prior authorization.
Card 23
Question
What does a TAF provide?
Answer
A forecast for the area within roughly 5 statute miles of an airport during its stated valid period.
Card 24
Question
How should a remote PIC build a current internet weather briefing?
Answer
Cross-check current observations, forecasts, hazard advisories, and graphical products for the operation's place and time. Use current FAA/NWS or Flight Service sources and check each product's issue and valid times.
Card 25
Question
What is the remote PIC's role when automation flies the route?
Answer
Continuously monitor the aircraft, environment, control link, and automation mode, and remain ready to intervene before safety margins disappear.
Card 26
Question
When must a crewmember decline a Part 107 role for medical reasons?
Answer
When a physical or mental condition would interfere with safe operation of the small UAS.
Card 27
Question
Why must in-flight weight changes be planned?
Answer
Releasing payload or consuming fuel can improve some performance while shifting the center of gravity and changing control response.
Card 28
Question
When does Class E airspace require Part 107 authorization?
Answer
When it is the surface area designated for an airport. Other Class E airspace does not generally require Part 107 authorization.
Card 29
Question
What may the FAA inspect from a Part 107 operator?
Answer
The remote pilot certificate, identification, registration, required records, the small UAS, and information or tests needed to determine compliance.
Card 30
Question
What should a lost-link plan decide before flight?
Answer
The aircraft's automatic action, route and altitude, timeout, recovery area, crew callouts, and point at which the flight will be terminated safely.
Card 31
Question
What do ASOS and AWOS provide?
Answer
Automated surface weather observations. Their data are useful but still represent conditions at the sensor location.
Card 32
Question
How must a remote PIC carry the certificate during an operation?
Answer
The remote pilot certificate and identification must be in the person's physical possession and readily accessible.
Card 33
Question
What is the first priority during a flyaway?
Answer
Protect people and other aircraft: warn the crew, track the aircraft if possible, assess airspace and trajectory, and notify appropriate authorities when needed.
Card 34
Question
What is Class G airspace?
Answer
Uncontrolled airspace from the surface to the base of overlying controlled airspace. Part 107 does not require ATC authorization solely because the operation is in Class G.
Card 35
Question
Does a Part 107 drone at or below 0.55 pound need registration?
Answer
Yes. The weight-based registration exception applies only when the aircraft is flown exclusively under the limited recreational exception.
Card 36
Question
What should a remote PIC do after unexpected GPS loss?
Answer
Use the aircraft's known non-GPS control mode or contingency procedure, stabilize or land promptly, and avoid relying on automation that needs valid position data.
Card 37
Question
What is the center of gravity?
Answer
The point at which the aircraft's total weight can be considered concentrated.
Card 38
Question
What does the four-letter group after METAR identify?
Answer
The reporting station's ICAO identifier, such as a K-prefixed identifier in the contiguous United States.
Card 39
Question
How are aircraft registered for Part 107 operations?
Answer
Each aircraft is registered separately and receives its own registration number.
Card 40
Question
What should be done with a swollen, damaged, or overheating lithium battery?
Answer
Do not fly or charge it. Isolate it safely and follow the manufacturer and hazardous-material handling guidance.
Card 41
Question
Why is Class A not a normal Part 107 operating environment?
Answer
Class A begins at 18,000 feet MSL, far above ordinary Part 107 altitude limits.
Card 42
Question
How long is a Part 48 registration certificate valid?
Answer
Three years. Renewal verification may occur at any time within the six months preceding the month in which the certificate expires.
Card 43
Question
How is a METAR time group decoded?
Answer
The first two digits are the day of the month and the next four are UTC time; Z means Zulu, or UTC.
Card 44
Question
What is the safest basic lithium-battery charging practice?
Answer
Use compatible equipment on a nonflammable surface, monitor the charge, control temperature, and keep a suitable response plan nearby.
Card 45
Question
When must Part 48 registration information be updated or canceled?
Answer
Within 14 calendar days after an applicable change, destruction, transfer, export, or end of eligibility.
Card 46
Question
What registration document must be available during a Part 107 flight?
Answer
The aircraft's FAA registration certificate, as a paper or digital copy. Anyone operating the drone must have it in their possession while flying.
Card 47
Question
What moves an aircraft's center of gravity?
Answer
Changing where weight is placed, attached, shifted, or released.
Card 48
Question
What is the NAS, and what is ATC’s role within it?
Answer
The National Airspace System integrates U.S. airspace, facilities, services, rules, and people. ATC promotes a safe, orderly traffic flow and helps prevent collisions, but it doesn't replace the remote PIC's Part 107 or see-and-avoid duties.
Card 49
Question
What makes an emergency plan useful?
Answer
Specific triggers, immediate actions, crew callouts, safe landing areas, emergency contacts, and aircraft-specific procedures that the crew has reviewed before flight.
Card 50
Question
How is a Class B boundary shown on a sectional chart?
Answer
With solid blue lines. The charted altitude figures define the shelves and limits.
Card 51
Question
What is the first response to a lithium-battery fire?
Answer
Move people away, call emergency services as needed, follow the site and battery response plan, and use a suitable extinguisher only if trained. Damaged cells can reignite, so keep monitoring from a safe position.
Card 52
Question
How must a Part 48 registration number appear on a drone?
Answer
Legibly displayed, affixed, and visible on an external surface of the aircraft.
Card 53
Question
How is 22012KT decoded in a weather report?
Answer
Wind is from 220 degrees true at 12 knots.
Card 54
Question
What recurring factors contribute to many small-UAS accidents?
Answer
Weak planning, loss of control, failure to detect or yield to other aircraft, and poor judgment or decision-making. Careful planning, continuous control, traffic scanning, and conservative decisions reduce those risks.
Card 55
Question
Which drones must follow Remote ID operating rules?
Answer
Unmanned aircraft that are registered or required to be registered, unless a specific Part 89 exception or authorization applies.
Card 56
Question
What is the Part 107 maximum groundspeed?
Answer
87 knots, which is 100 miles per hour.
Card 57
Question
How is a Class C boundary shown on a sectional chart?
Answer
With solid magenta lines.
Card 58
Question
What are the three ordinary ways to comply with Remote ID?
Answer
Operate a Standard Remote ID drone, use an FAA-compliant broadcast module, or fly a nonbroadcasting drone entirely within a FRIA under its conditions.
Card 59
Question
What is the normal Part 107 altitude limit?
Answer
400 feet above ground level.
Card 60
Question
What does 18010G18KT mean?
Answer
Wind from 180 degrees true at 10 knots, gusting to 18 knots.
Card 61
Question
How should spare lithium batteries be transported safely?
Answer
Inspect them, protect the terminals from short circuit, and pack them against movement or damage. Don't transport a battery that is swollen, damaged, overheating, or subject to a safety recall unless it has been made safe under the applicable transport rules.
Card 62
Question
What should a pilot do if the loaded CG is outside approved limits?
Answer
Do not fly. Relocate or remove weight until the aircraft remains within limits for the entire operation.
Card 63
Question
What information does Standard Remote ID broadcast?
Answer
Aircraft identity; the drone's position, geometric altitude, and velocity; the control station's position and geometric altitude; a UTC time mark; and the aircraft's emergency status.
Card 64
Question
How is a Class D boundary shown on a sectional chart?
Answer
With a dashed blue line.
Card 65
Question
What altitude exception applies near a structure?
Answer
Within 400 feet horizontally of a structure, the drone may fly up to 400 feet above the structure's uppermost limit, subject to airspace and other rules.
Card 66
Question
What are the basic Part 107 visibility and cloud clearances?
Answer
At least 3 statute miles of flight visibility from the control station, 500 feet below clouds, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
Card 67
Question
What location replaces the control-station location in a broadcast-module message?
Answer
The aircraft's takeoff location and geometric altitude. The module also broadcasts its serial number and the aircraft's position, altitude, velocity, and time mark.
Card 68
Question
What must visual line of sight let the crew determine?
Answer
The aircraft's location, attitude, altitude, direction, nearby traffic and hazards, and whether it remains safe to operate.
Card 69
Question
How is a Class E surface area shown on a sectional chart?
Answer
With a dashed magenta line. A Part 107 operation inside its lateral boundary needs prior authorization.
Card 70
Question
What does 2SM mean in a METAR?
Answer
Prevailing visibility is 2 statute miles, below Part 107's normal 3-statute-mile minimum.
Card 71
Question
What must the person manipulating the controls do if Standard Remote ID or a broadcast module stops broadcasting in flight?
Answer
Land the aircraft as soon as practicable.
Card 72
Question
Why can a payload mounted off center be hazardous?
Answer
It creates an unbalanced moment, increases control effort, and may leave too little control authority to resist wind or recover from a disturbance.
Card 73
Question
May corrective lenses be used to maintain visual line of sight?
Answer
Yes. Vision must otherwise be unaided by devices such as binoculars.
Card 74
Question
What extra operating limit comes with a Remote ID broadcast module?
Answer
The person manipulating the controls must be able to see the aircraft at all times throughout the operation.
Card 75
Question
For METAR weather that accepts an intensity qualifier, what do
-,+, and no sign mean?Answer
-means light,+means heavy, and no sign means moderate. Apply that rule only to weather phenomena that use intensity qualifiers.Card 76
Question
What communication must a visual observer maintain?
Answer
Effective communication with the remote PIC and the person manipulating the controls so traffic and hazards can be shared promptly.
Card 77
Question
What does a shaded magenta Class E boundary usually indicate?
Answer
Class E begins at 700 feet AGL on the faded side of the boundary.
Card 78
Question
What conditions apply to a non-Remote-ID flight in a FRIA?
Answer
Both the aircraft and the person manipulating the controls must remain within the FRIA boundaries, and that person must see the aircraft throughout the flight.
Card 79
Question
How many drones may one person serve at once under Part 107?
Answer
One. A person may not manipulate controls, serve as remote PIC, or serve as visual observer for more than one operation at the same time.
Card 80
Question
How do FEW, SCT, BKN, and OVC differ?
Answer
FEW is more than 0 through 2/8 sky cover; SCT is 3/8–4/8; BKN is 5/8–7/8; and OVC is 8/8.
Card 81
Question
What can a weather chart or graphical product tell you—and what can't it?
Answer
It shows the broad location, movement, or forecast extent of weather. Its valid time, scale, symbols, and resolution limit it, so it doesn't replace current site-specific reports, forecasts, and advisories.
Card 82
Question
What is aircraft stability?
Answer
The inherent tendency to resist a disturbance or return toward the original flight condition.
Card 83
Question
What Remote ID detail belongs in a Part 107 registration record?
Answer
The serial number of the Standard Remote ID aircraft or the broadcast module used for that registered device.
Card 84
Question
Which aircraft have right of way over a small UAS?
Answer
All aircraft, airborne vehicles, and launch or reentry vehicles. The small UAS must yield and must not create a collision hazard.
Card 85
Question
What does a shaded blue Class E boundary usually indicate?
Answer
Class E begins at 1,200 feet AGL on the faded side of the boundary.
Card 86
Question
Can ADS-B Out satisfy Remote ID?
Answer
No. Part 89 expressly rejects ADS-B Out as a means of Remote ID compliance.
Card 87
Question
May a Part 107 small UAS carry hazardous material?
Answer
No. Part 107 prohibits carrying hazardous material as defined by federal hazardous-materials law.
Card 88
Question
Which reported cloud layers form a ceiling?
Answer
The lowest broken or overcast layer, or vertical visibility into an obscuration. Few and scattered layers are not ceilings.
Card 89
Question
Why must a remote pilot distinguish MSL from AGL?
Answer
MSL measures altitude from mean sea level, while AGL measures height above the local surface. Sectional airspace limits commonly use MSL; Part 107's normal height limit uses AGL.
Card 90
Question
What conduct does Part 107 prohibit as hazardous operation?
Answer
Careless or reckless operation that endangers another person's life or property, and dropping an object in a way that creates an undue hazard.
Card 91
Question
When may the FAA authorize a Remote ID deviation?
Answer
For an operation conducted solely for aeronautical research or to show compliance with regulations, or under another specific FAA authorization.
Card 92
Question
Why can a small-UAS radio link fail even within visual range?
Answer
Shared-band interference, barriers, antenna orientation, distance, or terrain can weaken a line-of-sight RF link. Check the site and link before flight, stay within manufacturer limits, and follow the lost-link plan.
Card 93
Question
What is CTAF?
Answer
The Common Traffic Advisory Frequency used for airport advisory practices at an airport without an operating control tower.
Card 94
Question
What is maneuverability?
Answer
The aircraft's ability to change attitude or flightpath and withstand the loads created by those maneuvers.
Card 95
Question
May a small UAS be operated from a moving aircraft?
Answer
No.
Card 96
Question
How do UNICOM and MULTICOM differ?
Answer
UNICOM is a nongovernment air-ground station that may provide airport information; MULTICOM is a common self-announce frequency used where no tower, FSS, or UNICOM is available.
Card 97
Question
Who may apply to establish a FRIA?
Answer
An FAA-recognized community-based organization or an educational institution. An individual pilot cannot establish one alone.
Card 98
Question
How is BKN015 decoded?
Answer
A broken cloud layer with a base 1,500 feet AGL.
Card 99
Question
How are sectional airspace altitudes commonly written?
Answer
In hundreds of feet MSL, with the ceiling above the floor. A floor marked SFC begins at the surface.
Card 100
Question
When may a small UAS be operated from a moving land or water vehicle?
Answer
Only over a sparsely populated area, and not while transporting another person's property for compensation or hire.
Card 101
Question
What does ATIS provide?
Answer
A repeating broadcast of current local weather and important noncontrol airport information, identified by a letter code that changes with updates.
Card 102
Question
What does “November” followed by letters or numbers identify in a traffic call?
Answer
A U.S. civil aircraft registration used as its call sign. Decode the remaining characters with standard digits and the aviation phonetic alphabet.
Card 103
Question
What must a foreign-registered drone obtain before U.S. Remote ID operations?
Answer
The operator must file the required Notice of Identification and receive an FAA Confirmation of Identification before operating in the United States.
Card 104
Question
What alcohol limits apply to a Part 107 crewmember?
Answer
No duty within 8 hours after drinking, while under the influence, or with a blood alcohol concentration of 0.04 percent or more.
Card 105
Question
How is M02/M05 decoded?
Answer
Temperature minus 2 degrees Celsius and dew point minus 5 degrees Celsius.
Card 106
Question
Must a Part 107 pilot routinely transmit on aviation radio near an airport?
Answer
No. Monitoring the correct frequency can improve awareness, but it does not replace visual vigilance or create a general transmission requirement.
Card 107
Question
What are A–I in the aviation phonetic alphabet?
Answer
Alfa, Bravo, Charlie, Delta, Echo, Foxtrot, Golf, Hotel, India.
Card 108
Question
What extra §107.29 conditions apply in ordinary daylight?
Answer
None solely because it is daylight. The night-knowledge and three-statute-mile anti-collision-light conditions in §107.29 do not apply, but every other applicable Part 107 requirement still does.
Card 109
Question
What does a blue versus magenta airport symbol usually tell you?
Answer
Blue generally identifies an airport with an operating control tower; magenta generally identifies a nontowered airport.
Card 110
Question
What Remote ID label should an operator verify?
Answer
A Standard Remote ID aircraft or broadcast module must carry the producer's legible, prominent, permanently affixed English label stating that it meets Part 89.
Card 111
Question
Does ordinary license-free drone-control equipment need an individual FCC operator license?
Answer
No, provided FCC-authorized equipment is used within the conditions of its license-free radio service. Equipment authorization applies to the device; other frequencies or radio services may require an individual operator or station license.
Card 112
Question
May a crewmember use a drug that impairs safe operation?
Answer
No. A person may not participate while using a drug that affects their faculties contrary to safety.
Card 113
Question
What is Local Airport Advisory service?
Answer
It is an FSS advisory service available only in Alaska, within 10 statute miles of an airport where the tower isn't operating and an FSS is located on the airport. Check the current Alaska Chart Supplement for availability.
Card 114
Question
What is controllability?
Answer
The aircraft's ability to respond to control inputs, regardless of how inherently stable it is.
Card 115
Question
What knowledge prerequisite applies to Part 107 night operations?
Answer
The remote PIC must have completed an initial knowledge test or training, as applicable under §107.65, after April 6, 2021. Applicable training may be initial Part 61 training or recurrent training.
Card 116
Question
How is A2992 decoded in a METAR?
Answer
An altimeter setting of 29.92 inches of mercury.
Card 117
Question
How should a remote pilot treat a towered airport when its control tower is closed?
Answer
Treat it as an airport without an operating tower: check the published CTAF and procedures, monitor traffic, and rely on see-and-avoid rather than tower control.
Card 118
Question
What does a crewed-aircraft self-announcement normally communicate?
Answer
The aircraft identity, airport, position, altitude when useful, and intentions. Use that information to project the traffic path; Part 107 doesn't create a routine transmit requirement.
Card 119
Question
What is a prohibited area?
Answer
Airspace where flight is prohibited for security or national-welfare reasons unless the responsible agency authorizes it.
Card 120
Question
What lighting is required for a Part 107 night flight?
Answer
Anti-collision lighting visible for at least 3 statute miles, with a flash rate sufficient to avoid a collision.
Card 121
Question
What relationship holds in steady, level flight?
Answer
Lift equals weight. If available lift becomes insufficient for the weight and conditions, altitude cannot be maintained.
Card 122
Question
What Remote ID check is required before takeoff with a broadcast module?
Answer
The person manipulating the controls must ensure the module is functioning as required by Part 89 before takeoff.
Card 123
Question
Why should a remote pilot understand the traffic pattern?
Answer
It predicts where crewed aircraft are likely to climb, descend, turn, and approach, helping the small UAS remain clear.
Card 124
Question
What are J–R in the aviation phonetic alphabet?
Answer
Juliett, Kilo, Lima, Mike, November, Oscar, Papa, Quebec, Romeo.
Card 125
Question
What certificate consequences can follow prohibited drug or alcohol conduct?
Answer
The FAA may deny an application for up to one year or suspend or revoke a certificate. Refusing a qualifying alcohol test or refusing to release requested results can trigger the same consequences.
Card 126
Question
What does RMK introduce in a METAR?
Answer
The remarks section, which can add sensor, pressure, lightning, visibility, and other details.
Card 127
Question
May anti-collision lighting be dimmed at night?
Answer
Its intensity may be reduced when necessary for safety, but it may not be extinguished during the operation.
Card 128
Question
What is a restricted area?
Answer
Airspace containing unusual, often invisible hazards such as artillery or missile activity. A Part 107 operation requires permission from the using or controlling agency, as applicable.
Card 129
Question
Which sources provide current airport operating data?
Answer
The sectional chart, Chart Supplement, current NOTAMs, and local broadcasts such as ATIS, ASOS, or AWOS.
Card 130
Question
Why do heliports and seaplane bases need separate traffic awareness?
Answer
Their traffic may use water, pads, or routes that don't match a runway pattern. Identify the facility on current charts and airport data, then watch for low or unexpected arrivals and departures.
Card 131
Question
What is a warning area?
Answer
Airspace extending from 3 nautical miles outward from the U.S. coast that warns of potentially hazardous activity where the United States lacks sole jurisdiction.
Card 132
Question
What is civil twilight for Part 107 outside Alaska?
Answer
The 30 minutes before official sunrise and the 30 minutes after official sunset. During civil twilight, the aircraft must have an anti-collision light visible for at least 3 statute miles with a flash rate sufficient to avoid collision; its intensity may be reduced, but not extinguished, when safety requires.
Card 133
Question
How is a runway number derived?
Answer
From the runway's magnetic direction rounded to the nearest 10 degrees, with the final zero omitted.
Card 134
Question
How far may a remote PIC deviate during an in-flight emergency?
Answer
Only as far as necessary to address that emergency.
Card 135
Question
How is the TAF valid period 2512/2618 decoded?
Answer
From 1200 UTC on the 25th until 1800 UTC on the 26th.
Card 136
Question
When is an emergency-deviation report required?
Answer
Only when the FAA requests one. The remote PIC must then provide a written report.
Card 137
Question
What do hold-position markings protect?
Answer
They mark a boundary that aircraft and vehicles must not cross without the required clearance or authorization, protecting an active runway or other controlled surface.
Card 138
Question
What are S–Z in the aviation phonetic alphabet?
Answer
Sierra, Tango, Uniform, Victor, Whiskey, Xray, Yankee, Zulu.
Card 139
Question
What is load factor?
Answer
The ratio of the aerodynamic load supported by the aircraft to its weight, expressed in Gs.
Card 140
Question
What should a remote pilot get from the current Chart Supplement?
Answer
Airport and runway details, lighting, communications, weather sources, notices, procedures, and other data that aren't readily shown graphically. The FAA issues the Chart Supplement every 56 days, so use the current edition.
Card 141
Question
Which Part 107 accidents require an FAA report?
Answer
Within 10 calendar days, report an operation causing serious injury or loss of consciousness, or qualifying damage to property other than the drone above the $500 threshold.
Card 142
Question
What is the purpose of a military operations area?
Answer
To separate specified military training activity from IFR traffic. Other pilots should check its status and exercise extreme caution.
Card 143
Question
How do hazard and risk differ?
Answer
A hazard is a condition that can cause harm; risk is the assessed likelihood and severity of that harm in the planned operation.
286 cards
FAA Part 107 Flashcards: Remote Pilot Knowledge Test Review
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Card 144
Question
How can a remote pilot obtain a current established NOTAM?
Answer
Use FAA NOTAM Search or request it through Flight Service's current online or telephone briefing channels. Confirm the location, effective period, and any later change before flight.
Card 145
Question
What does SIDA mean at an airport?
Answer
Security Identification Display Area—a limited-access area that requires authorization and proper displayed identification. Don't enter if you aren't authorized; ask the airport authority when the boundary is unclear.
Card 146
Question
What does FM mark in a TAF?
Answer
A rapid, lasting change beginning at the stated time, after which the new forecast conditions apply.
Card 147
Question
Which controlled airspace needs prior Part 107 authorization?
Answer
Class B, C, and D airspace, plus the lateral boundaries of Class E surface areas designated for an airport.
Card 148
Question
What does PAVE organize?
Answer
Preflight risk into Pilot, Aircraft, enVironment, and External pressures.
Card 149
Question
What load factor occurs in a coordinated 60-degree level turn?
Answer
2 G. The aircraft must produce lift equal to twice its weight to hold altitude.
Card 150
Question
What rule applies near any airport without controlled-airspace authorization requirements?
Answer
The operation still may not interfere with airport traffic patterns or operations.
Card 151
Question
How does traffic awareness differ with an operating tower versus a closed or nontowered airport?
Answer
With an operating tower, monitor its published frequency and use the traffic picture it provides. When the tower is closed or absent, use the published CTAF and nontowered procedures. Monitoring never authorizes the UAS or replaces visual vigilance and other Part 107 duties.
Card 152
Question
What does an alert area signal?
Answer
A high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity. All pilots remain responsible for collision avoidance.
Card 153
Question
What does IMSAFE check?
Answer
Personal fitness through Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fatigue, and Emotion.
Card 154
Question
How do TEMPO and PROB30 differ in a TAF?
Answer
TEMPO describes temporary fluctuations during a period; PROB30 gives a 30 percent probability of specified conditions during its period.
Card 155
Question
What is needed to enter prohibited or restricted airspace?
Answer
Permission from the using or controlling agency, as applicable, in addition to compliance with other requirements.
Card 156
Question
How are altitude, direction, speed, and time normally spoken on aviation radio?
Answer
Use distinct digits and the standard label: 12,500 is “one two thousand five hundred”; heading 270 is “heading two seven zero”; 15 knots is “one five knots”; 0930 UTC is “zero niner three zero Zulu.”
Card 157
Question
What are the three steps of the 3P model?
Answer
Perceive hazards, Process their effect on safety, and Perform the best risk control. Repeat as conditions change.
Card 158
Question
What must a remote PIC do about a temporary flight restriction?
Answer
Check current NOTAMs before flight and comply with the TFR unless specifically authorized otherwise.
Card 159
Question
For §107.9 reporting, what counts as a serious injury?
Answer
An injury at Abbreviated Injury Scale Level 3 or higher. Loss of consciousness remains a separate reporting trigger even without that injury classification.
Card 160
Question
Why is a controlled firing area not charted?
Answer
Its hazardous activity must stop when a spotter, radar, or lookout detects an approaching aircraft, so nonparticipating aircraft need not reroute around it.
Card 161
Question
What are the legs and normal turn direction of a standard airport traffic pattern?
Answer
Departure, upwind, crosswind, downwind, base, and final approach are distinct components; upwind is not another name for departure. Standard traffic uses left turns unless airport markings or current publications specify otherwise.
Card 162
Question
What does a Convective SIGMET warn about?
Answer
Significant convective hazards such as severe, embedded, or organized thunderstorms, including qualifying hail, wind, or tornado risk.
Card 163
Question
How do CARE and TEAM support a risk decision?
Answer
CARE processes Consequences, Alternatives, Reality, and External factors; TEAM chooses to Transfer, Eliminate, Accept, or Mitigate the risk.
Card 164
Question
What must preflight familiarization cover?
Answer
Local weather, airspace and restrictions, people and property, ground hazards, crew roles, control links, power, attachments, and the aircraft's condition.
Card 165
Question
What night-lighting check belongs in the preflight inspection?
Answer
Verify that the required anti-collision light works, is positioned and rated to remain visible for at least 3 statute miles, and has enough power for the planned flight and landing.
Card 166
Question
How does increased load factor affect fixed-wing stall speed?
Answer
Stall speed rises with the square root of load factor, so steep or abrupt maneuvers can cause a stall at a higher airspeed.
Card 167
Question
What does an MTR identifier reveal?
Answer
IR denotes an IFR route, and VR denotes a VFR route. Four digits mean no route segment is above 1,500 feet AGL, while three digits mean at least one segment is above 1,500 feet AGL; a trailing letter may identify an alternate route. Expect fast, low-altitude military traffic.
Card 168
Question
What extra limits apply when transporting property for compensation under Part 107?
Answer
The transport must stay wholly within one State, territory, or U.S. possession, or within the District of Columbia. It must also remain within visual line of sight, use no moving vehicle, and keep the aircraft plus property under 55 pounds.
Card 169
Question
What is crew resource management?
Answer
The effective use of people, equipment, and information to coordinate the operation and make safer decisions.
Card 170
Question
What is density altitude?
Answer
Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. Operationally, it describes the air density the aircraft performs as though it were experiencing.
Card 171
Question
May a Part 107 drone transmit with a transponder?
Answer
Not unless the FAA authorizes or directs its use.
Card 172
Question
How is a temporary flight restriction established?
Answer
Through an FDC NOTAM that states the location, effective time, dimensions, altitudes, reason, and coordinating facility.
Card 173
Question
What should a remote pilot do about birds or other wildlife near the route?
Answer
Avoid known concentrations and migration activity, then divert or land before a conflict develops. Report any wildlife strike through the FAA Wildlife Strike Database or Form 5200-7.
Card 174
Question
What is situational awareness?
Answer
An accurate understanding of the aircraft, crew, environment, mission, and how those conditions are likely to change.
Card 175
Question
What colors normally distinguish runway and taxiway markings?
Answer
Runway markings are white; taxiway markings are yellow. Holding-position markings are also yellow, even when placed on a runway.
Card 176
Question
How does high density altitude affect a small UAS?
Answer
Thinner air reduces propeller, wing, and cooling performance, often lowering payload, climb rate, and endurance.
Card 177
Question
What is single-pilot resource management?
Answer
Managing every available resource before and during flight so one pilot can maintain awareness, control workload, assess risk, and decide well.
Card 178
Question
Which conditions raise density altitude?
Answer
Higher elevation or lower pressure, higher temperature, and higher humidity.
Card 179
Question
What is the minimum age for a remote pilot certificate?
Answer
- The applicant normally must also read, speak, write, and understand English and have no disqualifying physical or mental condition. If a medical reason prevents meeting an English requirement, the FAA may place operating limitations on the certificate.
Card 180
Question
What is an early sign of task saturation?
Answer
Working harder while accomplishing less, missing inputs, or fixating on one item. Stop, slow down, prioritize, and reduce workload.
Card 181
Question
May ADS-B Out be transmitted during a Part 107 operation?
Answer
Not unless the FAA authorizes or directs it. ADS-B Out is also not a substitute for Remote ID.
Card 182
Question
Where should a pilot look for frequent parachute-jump activity?
Answer
The sectional chart and current Chart Supplement, then current NOTAMs for time-sensitive activity.
Card 183
Question
Why should a small UAS never fly beneath an unmanned free balloon?
Answer
Its payload suspension or trailing antenna may be hard to see and extend below the balloon. Stay well clear rather than passing underneath.
Card 184
Question
What personal equipment should a remote pilot prepare for night operations?
Answer
Keep a reliable dimmable white or red flashlight, fresh or spare batteries, and needed charts and checklists accessible. This is an operator-equipment recommendation, separate from the aircraft-lighting rule in §107.29.
Card 185
Question
Why does high humidity reduce aircraft performance?
Answer
Moist air is less dense than dry air, so the propellers or wings produce less force under otherwise equal conditions.
Card 186
Question
Why are external pressures dangerous?
Answer
Schedule, client, money, or pride can make a pilot discount weather, condition, or skill limits. A preplanned cancellation rule protects the decision.
Card 187
Question
May someone take the initial Part 107 knowledge test before age 16?
Answer
Yes, at age 14 or older. Certificate eligibility still begins at age 16.
Card 188
Question
What is the usual first-time certification path without a qualifying Part 61 certificate?
Answer
Pass the initial Unmanned Aircraft General—Small knowledge test, then complete the FAA application and vetting process.
Card 189
Question
Why can high temperature shorten a battery-powered flight?
Answer
The aircraft may need more power in less-dense air while the battery and electronics face greater thermal stress.
Card 190
Question
How should the anti-authority attitude be countered?
Answer
Pause and follow the applicable rule or procedure; do not dismiss it merely because someone else imposed it.
Card 191
Question
What is a TRSA?
Answer
A Terminal Radar Service Area where participating pilots may receive additional radar services. Participation is voluntary, and the underlying airspace classes still control Part 107 authorization.
Card 192
Question
What do common airport beacon colors identify?
Answer
A white-and-green beacon identifies a lighted land airport; a white-and-yellow beacon identifies a lighted water airport or seaplane base; and a green-yellow-white beacon identifies a lighted heliport.
Card 193
Question
What alternative initial path is available to a qualifying Part 61 pilot?
Answer
With a current Part 61 certificate and a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months, complete the FAA initial online course and identity-validation process.
Card 194
Question
What can a rapidly falling barometric pressure signal?
Answer
Approaching poor weather or a developing storm system. It is a trend to investigate, not a go/no-go answer by itself.
Card 195
Question
How should impulsivity be countered?
Answer
Slow down long enough to identify the hazard, options, and safest next action.
Card 196
Question
What is a National Security Area?
Answer
Airspace where pilots are asked to avoid flight to protect sensitive ground facilities; a NOTAM may temporarily make avoidance mandatory.
Card 197
Question
What should a remote pilot extract from tower transmissions?
Answer
Identify the aircraft, its position or runway, direction, altitude when stated, and the controller's instruction or the pilot's intention. Use that traffic picture to remain clear; monitoring does not authorize the UAS or replace visual vigilance.
Card 198
Question
How recent must Part 107 aeronautical knowledge be?
Answer
The remote pilot must have completed an accepted initial or recurrent path within the preceding 24 calendar months.
Card 199
Question
How does a strong headwind affect the return leg?
Answer
It lowers groundspeed and increases the time and energy needed to return. Plan reserve for the worst expected leg, not the easy outbound leg.
Card 200
Question
How should invulnerability be countered?
Answer
Treat the hazard as personally relevant: the same failure can happen on this flight.
Card 201
Question
How do stable and unstable air usually differ?
Answer
Stable air favors smooth conditions, stratiform clouds, haze, and steady precipitation; unstable air favors turbulence, vertical clouds, and showery precipitation.
Card 202
Question
Which current FAA recurrent courses serve Part 107 pilots?
Answer
ALC-677 is available to Part 107 certificate holders generally; ALC-515 is the recurrent path for a qualifying current Part 61 pilot with a current flight review.
Card 203
Question
What is a published VFR route?
Answer
A charted route for moving around, under, or through complex airspace. It does not by itself authorize a Part 107 operation.
Card 204
Question
What do red, green, and white position lights reveal about a crewed aircraft?
Answer
Red marks its left side, green its right side, and white its tail. Use the pattern to judge direction; red on your right and green on your left can indicate that the aircraft is coming toward you.
Card 205
Question
How should a macho attitude be countered?
Answer
Reject the need to prove skill by taking risk; conservative choices demonstrate sound command.
Card 206
Question
What is a temperature inversion?
Answer
A layer where temperature increases with altitude. It is stable and can trap fog, haze, smoke, and pollutants near the surface.
Card 207
Question
How long can full dark adaptation take?
Answer
About 30 minutes in darkness. Bright light can undo it within seconds, so protect night vision before and during the operation.
Card 208
Question
Does a current remote pilot retake the UAG test for routine recency?
Answer
No. Current FAA recurrent training is completed online; the old recurrent knowledge-test model is obsolete.
Card 209
Question
What counts toward the 55-pound small-UA limit?
Answer
The aircraft and everything on board or attached at takeoff, including payload, guards, lights, and a Remote ID module.
Card 210
Question
How soon may an applicant retake a failed Part 107 knowledge test?
Answer
After 14 calendar days.
Card 211
Question
How do source regions shape an air mass?
Answer
The source region sets the air mass's basic temperature and moisture: continental air is dry, maritime air is moist, polar air is cold, and tropical air is warm.
Card 212
Question
How should resignation be countered?
Answer
Identify the actions and resources still available; the pilot can change the outcome.
Card 213
Question
What happens 30 days after a permanent mailing-address change?
Answer
The remote pilot may no longer exercise certificate privileges until the FAA has been notified of the new address.
Card 214
Question
How can dehydration or heat stress affect a remote pilot?
Answer
It can cause headache, cramps, dizziness, fatigue, poor concentration, and eventually collapse. Hydrate, cool down, and stop before judgment degrades.
Card 215
Question
Why must NOTAMs be checked even with a current sectional?
Answer
They carry time-critical changes such as TFRs, closures, outages, hazards, and procedures that may not appear on the chart.
Card 216
Question
How can precipitation static affect a small UAS?
Answer
Charge from rain, snow, fog, dust, or similar particles can interfere with radios, sensors, or the control link. Avoid the condition and follow the aircraft's limits rather than relying on recovery after interference starts.
Card 217
Question
How long may a temporary remote pilot certificate remain effective?
Answer
Up to 120 calendar days. It ends sooner at the earliest of its printed expiration date, receipt of the permanent certificate, or receipt of notice that the sought certificate is denied or revoked.
Card 218
Question
What can follow cheating on a Part 107 knowledge test?
Answer
For one year, the person is prohibited from applying for any FAA certificate, rating, or authorization and from applying for or taking any FAA test. A held certificate or rating may also be suspended or revoked.
Card 219
Question
How can operational stress affect a remote pilot?
Answer
It can narrow attention, cause fixation or haste, and degrade judgment. Reduce workload, pause and reassess, or delay or cancel the flight when stress compromises safe decisions.
Card 220
Question
What do basic runway and taxiway light colors mean?
Answer
Runway edge lights are normally white and taxiway edge lights blue. Threshold lights show green toward an arriving aircraft, while runway-end lights show red toward the runway.
Card 221
Question
What should a pilot do when hyperventilating?
Answer
Recognize the rapid breathing, consciously slow the breathing rate, speak or breathe deliberately, and stop the operation if normal function does not return.
Card 222
Question
What should a night-flight contingency plan decide?
Answer
How to stop or land safely after loss of required lighting, visual orientation, control link, or a safe view of traffic and obstacles. Preselect a suitable recovery area and brief the trigger for ending the flight.
Card 223
Question
What does a narrowing temperature–dew point spread suggest?
Answer
Air is approaching saturation, increasing the chance of fog, low clouds, dew, or precipitation.
Card 224
Question
Does a remote pilot certificate itself expire?
Answer
No, but its privileges require current aeronautical knowledge within the preceding 24 calendar months.
Card 225
Question
How do mandatory-instruction and location signs differ?
Answer
Mandatory-instruction signs have a red background with a white inscription. Location signs have a black background with a yellow inscription and border.
Card 226
Question
What is LAANC used for?
Answer
It is an FAA system for requesting near-real-time Part 107 airspace authorization at participating facilities, subject to the published altitude grid and operating conditions.
Card 227
Question
How should a new medication be handled before flight?
Answer
Do not assume over-the-counter means safe. Check the condition and medication effects, allow time to identify side effects, and avoid flying if judgment or alertness may be impaired.
Card 228
Question
What must a Part 107 waiver applicant demonstrate?
Answer
That the proposed operation can be conducted safely under the waiver's terms and conditions.
Card 229
Question
How can fog form near the surface?
Answer
When air cools to its dew point, moisture is added, or moist air moves over a colder surface. Light wind can help mix a shallow layer; strong wind may lift it into low stratus.
Card 230
Question
What must be checked after attaching a payload?
Answer
Total weight, center of gravity, security of attachment, control response, power demand, clearances, and any category or manufacturer limits.
Card 231
Question
Why can fatigue be hard to self-detect?
Answer
It reduces attention, coordination, communication, and judgment while also weakening the person's ability to recognize that decline.
Card 232
Question
What do common obstruction-lighting systems look like at night?
Answer
Aviation-red systems show red lights at night. Flashing-white systems use white lights, with reduced night intensity where applicable. Dual systems use white lights by day and red lights at night.
Card 233
Question
Does a Part 107 waiver suspend every operating rule?
Answer
No. It applies only to the specifically waived sections and remains subject to all listed conditions and limitations.
Card 234
Question
Does an airspace authorization waive other Part 107 rules?
Answer
No. It permits the specified controlled-airspace operation but does not waive altitude, VLOS, weather, TFR, airport-interference, or other requirements.
Card 235
Question
How should a Part 107 crew handle laser activity or illumination?
Answer
Avoid known or NOTAMed laser activity. If the remote pilot or control station is illuminated, look away, protect vision, and land or terminate if vision or control is affected. If you witness a laser illuminate any aircraft, record useful details and report the incident through the applicable FAA channel.
Card 236
Question
How should a pilot scan for traffic and obstacles?
Answer
Use short, overlapping visual sectors with brief pauses instead of one continuous sweep, and move the scan between near and far areas.
Card 237
Question
How should a remote pilot look for a dim object at night?
Answer
Look about 5° to 10° to one side instead of staring straight at it. Off-center viewing puts the image on rod-rich retina outside the central night blind spot.
Card 238
Question
What is prohibited regarding Part 107 certificates, records, and reports?
Answer
Fraudulent or intentionally false statements, reproduction for a fraudulent purpose, and alteration.
Card 239
Question
What kinds of Part 107 rules may an FAA waiver address?
Answer
Only the rules listed in §107.205: moving operations; night or civil-twilight anti-collision lighting; VLOS, visual-observer, and one-aircraft limits; yielding and flight over people or moving vehicles; controlled-airspace authorization; and §107.51 operating limits. Moving-operation and VLOS waivers can't authorize compensated carriage of another person's property.
Card 240
Question
When may a drone fly over a person without using Category 1–4?
Answer
When the person directly participates in the operation, or is under a covered structure or inside a stationary vehicle that provides reasonable protection from a falling drone.
Card 241
Question
What changes should be expected near a front?
Answer
Temperature, wind, moisture, clouds, and precipitation can change quickly across the boundary between air masses.
Card 242
Question
What is the first concern when operating near an airport traffic pattern?
Answer
Avoid interfering with crewed-aircraft operations and maintain awareness of arrivals, departures, and the published traffic pattern.
Card 243
Question
Does an older manufacture date automatically bar a drone from Part 107 use?
Answer
No. It may operate if it meets all current requirements that apply to the operation, including registration, Remote ID, condition, and any operations-over-people category.
Card 244
Question
What is autokinesis?
Answer
A stationary light can appear to move when stared at against a dark background. Shift the gaze and use other references instead of fixating.
Card 245
Question
Does Part 107 set one universal stand-off distance from people?
Answer
No. The remote PIC selects and adjusts a safe distance from the aircraft's path, speed, maneuverability, environment, people, likely failures, and emergency landing options.
Card 246
Question
Why is a battery reserve part of performance planning?
Answer
Wind, temperature, maneuvering, holding, and an alternate landing area can consume more energy than the nominal mission estimate.
Card 247
Question
What makes a microburst dangerous near the surface?
Answer
It is an intense, localized downdraft that spreads outward at the surface, producing rapid vertical and horizontal wind shear with little low-altitude recovery margin.
Card 248
Question
What makes a drone eligible for Category 1 operations over people?
Answer
It must weigh 0.55 pound or less throughout the operation, including attachments, and have no exposed rotating parts that would lacerate human skin.
Card 249
Question
How do buildings and terrain affect low-level wind?
Answer
They can create gusts, rotors, downdrafts, and turbulence downwind. The stronger the wind and larger the obstacle, the greater the hazard.
Card 250
Question
Why should a small UAS stay clear of smoke-stack and cooling-tower plumes?
Answer
Visible or invisible hot exhaust can create turbulence, vertical shear, reduced visibility, contamination, and icing. Stay clear—preferably upwind—because the plume's extent is hard to predict.
Card 251
Question
What is a false-horizon illusion?
Answer
Sloping clouds, terrain, or lights can be mistaken for the true horizon, leading to an incorrect attitude judgment.
Card 252
Question
What should an operations-over-people contingency plan decide?
Answer
When to stop, divert, or land away from people after lost link, component failure, an eligibility-changing configuration issue, or unexpected crowd movement—and who will call and execute that action.
Card 253
Question
From where is Part 107 flight visibility measured?
Answer
From the location of the control station, not from a nearby airport weather sensor.
Card 254
Question
What injury threshold defines Category 2 eligibility?
Answer
The aircraft must not cause injury equivalent to or greater than the severity caused by transferring 11 foot-pounds of kinetic energy upon impact from a rigid object. It must also meet the rule's rotating-part and safety-defect requirements.
Card 255
Question
What is the baseline source for small-UAS maintenance?
Answer
The current manufacturer or builder instructions, supplemented by the operator's inspection and maintenance program for the actual use and environment.
Card 256
Question
Why is low-level wind shear dangerous to a small UAS?
Answer
A rapid change in wind speed or direction can abruptly change airspeed, lift, attitude, and ground track close to obstacles or terrain.
Card 257
Question
Why are guy wires a serious low-altitude hazard?
Answer
They can extend far from a tower and remain nearly invisible even in good weather. Give towers and their support systems wide clearance.
Card 258
Question
What injury threshold defines Category 3 eligibility?
Answer
The aircraft must not cause injury equivalent to or greater than the severity caused by transferring 25 foot-pounds of kinetic energy upon impact from a rigid object. It must also meet the rule's rotating-part and safety-defect requirements.
Card 259
Question
Which data controls an aircraft's exact loading limits?
Answer
The current manufacturer or builder operating instructions and limitations for that aircraft and configuration.
Card 260
Question
Who may perform maintenance on a Part 107 small UAS?
Answer
Part 107 generally doesn't require an FAA mechanic certificate. Follow manufacturer-required personnel or use someone with suitable expertise; Category 4 separately requires the person to have the knowledge, skill, and appropriate equipment under §107.140(c).
Card 261
Question
What makes a tornado a no-go hazard for a small UAS?
Answer
It combines extreme, rapidly changing winds, violent vertical motion, debris, and an unpredictable path. Stay well clear of any tornado or tornado-producing storm; don't try to observe it from the air.
Card 262
Question
What is the core requirement for Category 4 operations over people?
Answer
The aircraft must have an FAA airworthiness certificate and be operated and maintained under its approved operating limitations.
Card 263
Question
What should Category 2 or 3 remote-pilot operating instructions tell the pilot?
Answer
They should describe the system and its limitations; eligible categories and required components; allowed modifications; and how to verify or change the applicable configuration or operating mode.
Card 264
Question
Why can an unlighted structure be more hazardous at night?
Answer
Its silhouette and support wires may disappear against the background. Chart review, site inspection, lighting checks, and conservative separation become more important.
Card 265
Question
Why is hail a no-go hazard for a small UAS?
Answer
It can damage propellers, rotors, sensors, antennas, batteries, and the airframe, while nearby convective turbulence and downdrafts can overwhelm control. Avoid any storm producing or forecast to produce hail.
Card 266
Question
What performance check follows a repair or configuration change?
Answer
Verify weight, balance, control response, power, links, sensors, and expected endurance in a safe environment before returning to the planned mission.
Card 267
Question
When may a Category 2 or 3 drone carry an optional component or payload?
Answer
Only when the remote pilot operating instructions allow that component, payload, or modification for the declared configuration. It must remain securely attached and within every listed limitation.
Card 268
Question
What is the Part 107 response to an emergency airborne inspection of another aircraft?
Answer
Stay clear and yield; don't improvise a close pass. Proximity, wake or downwash, stress, communications, separation, and escape-path risks can endanger both aircraft.
Card 269
Question
Why should a small UAS avoid lightning activity?
Answer
A strike or nearby electrical discharge can damage electronics, interrupt navigation or control links, and injure people on the ground. Stay clear of thunderstorms and land or delay when lightning threatens the operating area.
Card 270
Question
For Part 107 Category 1, 2, or 4 sustained flight over an open-air assembly, which Remote ID methods qualify, and what is the Category 3 rule?
Answer
Use either a Standard Remote ID aircraft that meets §89.110 or a broadcast-module operation that meets §89.115(a). A nonbroadcast FRIA operation under §89.115(b) does not qualify, and Category 3 operations over an open-air assembly are prohibited.
Card 271
Question
How do an operations-over-people MOC and DOC differ?
Answer
An MOC is the FAA-accepted test, analysis, or inspection method. A DOC identifies that MOC and attests that the declared aircraft or configuration meets the applicable Category 2 or 3 and safety-defect requirements.
Card 272
Question
Why must frost or structural icing be removed before flight?
Answer
It disrupts airflow, reduces lift, adds weight, increases drag, and can degrade propeller or control-surface performance.
Card 273
Question
What hazards peak in a mature thunderstorm?
Answer
Strong updrafts and downdrafts, severe turbulence, gust fronts, microbursts, hail, lightning, heavy rain, and possible tornadoes. Avoid the storm rather than trying to judge a safe path through it.
Card 274
Question
Where may a Category 3 drone operate over people?
Answer
At a closed or restricted-access site with notice to entrants, or without sustained flight over people except for participants or people protected by a structure or stationary vehicle.
Card 275
Question
What maintenance records are required for Category 4?
Answer
Record the work, date, and person for one year or until the work is repeated or superseded. Retain life-limited-part, inspection, and airworthiness-directive status and transfer those status records with the aircraft.
Card 276
Question
What should the remote PIC evaluate when selecting an area for operations over people?
Answer
Evaluate people, moving vehicles and vessels; terrain and structures; the planned path, aircraft performance, and maneuverability; weather; likely failures, escape routes, and emergency landing options; and the pilot's familiarity with the site. Reassess as conditions change.
Card 277
Question
When may a Category 4 drone operate over people inside moving vehicles?
Answer
Only when the aircraft has the required airworthiness certificate and its operating limitations don't prohibit operations over people inside moving vehicles.
Card 278
Question
How can a modification affect operations-over-people eligibility?
Answer
A change to weight, structure, rotating parts, software, or required components can invalidate the demonstrated category unless the current approval and instructions cover that configuration.
Card 279
Question
Are maintenance records useful when Part 107 doesn't require Category 4 records?
Answer
Yes. FAA guidance recommends logging inspections, repairs, alterations, software changes, component time, and return-to-service checks. Category 4 has a separate mandatory record system.
Card 280
Question
What must be satisfied for a Part 107 operation over people at night?
Answer
Both the applicable Subpart D category rules and §107.29 night rules must be met. The remote PIC needs the applicable night knowledge or training, and the aircraft must stay in an eligible configuration with any operating instructions followed and an anti-collision light visible for at least 3 statute miles with a sufficient flash rate.
Card 281
Question
How long must Category 2 or 3 MOC and DOC support records be kept?
Answer
A DOC producer keeps supporting data for two years after production ends; a designer or modifier keeps it for two years after submitting the DOC. An MOC submitter keeps its description and justification while the MOC remains FAA-accepted.
Card 282
Question
What must the remote PIC check on a Category 2 or 3 aircraft?
Answer
The required category label, FAA-accepted Declaration of Compliance listing, current operating instructions, required components, and condition for safe operation.
Card 283
Question
When may a Category 1, 2, or 3 drone operate over moving vehicles?
Answer
At a closed- or restricted-access site where everyone inside a moving vehicle is on notice, or when the aircraft does not maintain sustained flight over moving vehicles. A brief, one-time transit can be incidental; hovering, circling, or repeated back-and-forth passes are sustained flight.
Card 284
Question
May a drone qualify for more than one operations-over-people category?
Answer
Yes, but it must not be able to switch inadvertently into a configuration that fails the category being used.
Card 285
Question
Who becomes the applicant for a self-built or materially modified Category 2 or 3 drone?
Answer
The person who produces, designs, builds from separate components, or makes an eligibility-changing modification. Before Category 2 or 3 operations, that applicant must show compliance through an FAA-accepted MOC and submit a new DOC.
Card 286
Question
What should follow maintenance before a normal mission?
Answer
Document the work as appropriate, inspect the aircraft, verify correct assembly and software settings, and perform a controlled functional check.
286 cards
FAA Part 107 Flashcards: Remote Pilot Knowledge Test Review
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