ATI TEAS 7 Science Flashcards: A&P, Biology, Chemistry & Scientific Reasoning
Practice 446 original ATI TEAS 7 Science recall and mini-scenario cards across A&P, biology, chemistry, and scientific reasoning.
About this deck
Build the core Science knowledge and reasoning used for ATI TEAS 7 with 446 independently authored flashcards.
What this deck practices
- Structure or concept → function: body systems, cells, molecules, atoms, solutions, and experimental parts.
- Function, outcome, or evidence → concept: selective reverse recall when recognizing the name matters in practice.
- Cause or condition → effect: physiology, chemical changes, reaction conditions, inheritance, and experimental predictions.
- Process and order: circulation, ventilation, digestion, urine formation, gene expression, cell division, and scientific investigations.
- Application: short calculations, comparisons, data interpretations, and original mini-scenarios.
The deck does not mechanically reverse every fact. It excludes multiple-choice distractors, exhaustive anatomy lists, obscure chemical nomenclature, advanced pathophysiology, pharmacology, and nursing-school procedures because those mappings do not improve entry-level TEAS Science recall.
The sequence introduces prerequisites before dependent ideas: anatomical language before body systems, cells before genetics, atoms before reactions, and measurement before experimental design. Related forward and reverse variants are separated so one card does not immediately reveal another.
Coverage follows the four Science areas and relative emphasis in ATI's public ATI TEAS 7 content outline: Human Anatomy and Physiology, Biology, Chemistry, and Scientific Reasoning. The public outline defines scope only. Questions, answers, explanations, examples, and ordering were independently authored from common scientific knowledge checked against open educational and official public sources.
No exam question, mark scheme, paid ATI flashcard, test-bank item, or curriculum text was copied. This is an independent, unofficial educational deck by Flashcards Open Source App. ATI and TEAS are marks of Assessment Technologies Institute, L.L.C.; this deck is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or produced by ATI. See ATI's official exam details for current requirements.
Cards in this deck
Card 1
Question
What posture defines the standard anatomical position?
Answer
Standing upright, facing forward, with arms at the sides and palms forward. The feet point forward, giving anatomy a consistent reference position.
Card 2
Question
In anatomical language, what does superior mean?
Answer
Toward the head or above another structure. Inferior means toward the feet or below.
Card 3
Question
Which anatomical plane divides the body into left and right portions?
Answer
The sagittal plane. A midsagittal plane divides the body into equal left and right halves.
Card 4
Question
Why does the body use feedback mechanisms?
Answer
To regulate internal conditions. Feedback compares a condition with a set range and triggers responses that adjust it.
Card 5
Question
What is the order of structural organization from simplest to most complex?
Answer
Chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, organ system, organism. Each level builds on interactions at the preceding level.
Card 6
Question
What does anterior mean in human anatomy?
Answer
Toward the front of the body. Posterior means toward the back.
Card 7
Question
Which plane divides the body into upper and lower portions?
Answer
The transverse plane. It is also called the horizontal plane.
Card 8
Question
What is homeostasis?
Answer
The maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment. It is dynamic rather than perfectly unchanging.
Card 9
Question
Which major body cavity contains the brain and spinal cord?
Answer
The dorsal body cavity. Its cranial cavity holds the brain, and its vertebral cavity holds the spinal cord.
Card 10
Question
What does medial mean in anatomical language?
Answer
Toward the body's midline. Lateral means farther from the midline.
Card 11
Question
A rise in body temperature triggers sweating. What control pattern is this?
Answer
Negative feedback. The response opposes the original temperature change and moves the body toward its normal range.
Card 12
Question
Which anatomical plane divides the body into front and back portions?
Answer
The frontal, or coronal, plane. It separates anterior from posterior portions.
Card 13
Question
Which major body cavity contains the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities?
Answer
The ventral body cavity. The diaphragm separates its thoracic and abdominopelvic portions.
Card 14
Question
What does proximal mean when describing a limb?
Answer
Closer to the limb's point of attachment. Distal means farther from that point.
Card 15
Question
How does positive feedback differ from negative feedback?
Answer
Positive feedback amplifies the initial change. Negative feedback opposes a change; positive feedback continues until a stopping event occurs.
Card 16
Question
Which tissue type covers surfaces and lines body cavities?
Answer
Epithelial tissue. It also forms many glands and often serves protective, absorptive, or secretory roles.
Card 17
Question
Which tissue type mainly supports, binds, and protects other tissues?
Answer
Connective tissue. Its cells are typically separated by an extracellular matrix.
Card 18
Question
What shared property lets muscle tissue produce movement?
Answer
Contractility. Muscle cells shorten or develop tension in response to stimulation.
Card 19
Question
Which tissue type rapidly communicates by electrical signals?
Answer
Nervous tissue. Neurons transmit signals, while supporting cells help maintain their environment.
Card 20
Question
Why are tightly packed epithelial cells well suited for barriers?
Answer
They leave little space between cells. This continuous arrangement limits passage across a surface.
Card 21
Question
What distinguishes connective tissue from epithelial tissue?
Answer
Connective tissue usually has abundant extracellular matrix. Epithelial cells are more tightly packed.
Card 22
Question
What are the four basic human tissue types?
Answer
Epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous tissue. Organs contain two or more tissue types working together.
Card 23
Question
What makes a structure an organ rather than a tissue?
Answer
An organ combines multiple tissue types for a specific function. A tissue is a group of similar cells and matrix performing related work.
Card 24
Question
What are the skeletal system's main functions?
Answer
Support, protection, movement, mineral storage, blood-cell production, and fat storage. Bones also provide levers for muscles.
Card 25
Question
What belongs to the axial skeleton?
Answer
The skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage. These structures form the body's central axis.
Card 26
Question
How do compact and spongy bone differ?
Answer
Compact bone is dense; spongy bone has a lattice of trabeculae. Both are organized living bone tissue.
Card 27
Question
What is a joint?
Answer
A place where two or more bones meet. Joint structure determines how much movement is possible.
Card 28
Question
Which bone cell builds new bone matrix?
Answer
An osteoblast. Osteoclasts break down bone, while osteocytes maintain mature bone tissue.
Card 29
Question
What belongs to the appendicular skeleton?
Answer
The limbs plus the shoulder and pelvic girdles. It attaches the limbs to the axial skeleton.
Card 30
Question
What is the main role of red bone marrow?
Answer
Blood-cell production. This process is called hematopoiesis.
Card 31
Question
Which joint class allows the greatest range of motion?
Answer
A synovial joint. A fluid-filled joint cavity reduces friction between articulating surfaces.
Card 32
Question
Which bone cell breaks down bone matrix?
Answer
An osteoclast. Bone resorption helps remodeling and mineral balance.
Card 33
Question
What does a ligament connect?
Answer
Bone to bone. A tendon connects muscle to bone.
Card 34
Question
What is the shaft of a long bone called?
Answer
The diaphysis. The enlarged ends are the epiphyses.
Card 35
Question
Why is bone important to blood-calcium balance?
Answer
Bone stores calcium and can release or absorb it during remodeling. Hormones regulate this exchange.
Card 36
Question
What is stored mainly in yellow bone marrow?
Answer
Fat. It serves as an energy reserve.
Card 37
Question
What does articular cartilage do at a synovial joint?
Answer
It reduces friction and absorbs shock. It covers the ends of articulating bones.
Card 38
Question
Why must a broken bone receive a blood supply during healing?
Answer
Repairing cells need oxygen and nutrients. Restored blood vessels support fracture healing.
Card 39
Question
What is bone remodeling?
Answer
Continuous removal and replacement of bone tissue. It repairs microdamage and helps bones adapt to stress.
Card 40
Question
Which muscle tissue is usually under voluntary control?
Answer
Skeletal muscle. Most skeletal muscles move the skeleton, while some, such as facial muscles, insert into skin or other soft tissue.
Card 41
Question
What is a sarcomere?
Answer
The basic contractile unit of striated muscle. It lies between two Z discs.
Card 42
Question
What does a tendon connect?
Answer
Muscle to bone. It transmits muscle force to the skeleton.
Card 43
Question
Which proteins slide past one another during muscle contraction?
Answer
Actin and myosin. Their interaction shortens sarcomeres without shortening the filaments themselves.
Card 44
Question
Where is smooth muscle commonly found?
Answer
In the walls of hollow organs and blood vessels. Its contractions are generally involuntary.
Card 45
Question
What ion exposes binding sites needed for skeletal muscle contraction?
Answer
Calcium. Its release inside the muscle fiber allows actin and myosin interaction.
Card 46
Question
How do antagonistic muscle pairs move a joint?
Answer
One muscle contracts while the opposing muscle relaxes. Reversing their roles moves the joint in the opposite direction.
Card 47
Question
Why does muscle contraction require ATP?
Answer
ATP powers cross-bridge cycling and ion pumps. It is also needed for myosin to detach from actin.
Card 48
Question
Which muscle tissue makes up the heart wall?
Answer
Cardiac muscle. It is striated, involuntary, and connected for coordinated pumping.
Card 49
Question
During a typical muscle contraction, which attachment moves more: origin or insertion?
Answer
The insertion. The origin is generally the more fixed attachment.
Card 50
Question
Which type of neuron sends the signal that initiates skeletal-muscle contraction?
Answer
A somatic motor neuron. It releases acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, triggering an action potential in the muscle fiber.
Card 51
Question
What is muscle tone?
Answer
Continuous low-level muscle tension. It helps maintain posture and readiness without producing a large movement.
Card 52
Question
How does skeletal muscle help regulate body temperature?
Answer
Contraction releases heat. Shivering increases rapid contractions when the body is cold.
Card 53
Question
What are the three muscle tissue types?
Answer
Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle. They differ in location, structure, and control.
Card 54
Question
What is a neuron's main function?
Answer
To receive, process, and transmit information. Neurons use electrical signals and chemical messengers.
Card 55
Question
What structures make up the central nervous system?
Answer
The brain and spinal cord. They integrate information and coordinate responses.
Card 56
Question
Which part of a neuron usually receives incoming signals?
Answer
The dendrites. The cell body integrates much of that input.
Card 57
Question
What does the peripheral nervous system include?
Answer
Nerves and ganglia outside the brain and spinal cord. It links the central nervous system with the rest of the body.
Card 58
Question
Which neuron structure carries an impulse away from the cell body?
Answer
The axon. Its terminals communicate with another cell.
Card 59
Question
Which nervous-system division controls skeletal muscles voluntarily?
Answer
The somatic nervous system. It also carries sensory information from skin, muscles, and joints.
Card 60
Question
What is a synapse?
Answer
A junction where one neuron communicates with another cell. Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters across a small gap.
Card 61
Question
Which nervous-system division regulates organs and glands without conscious control?
Answer
The autonomic nervous system. It includes sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
Card 62
Question
How does myelin affect nerve signaling?
Answer
It speeds impulse conduction along an axon. Myelin insulates segments of the axon.
Card 63
Question
Which autonomic division prepares the body for acute activity?
Answer
The sympathetic division. It generally increases alertness and supports a fight-or-flight response.
Card 64
Question
What is a reflex?
Answer
A rapid, predictable response to a stimulus. A reflex pathway can act before conscious awareness.
Card 65
Question
Which autonomic division supports rest, digestion, and energy conservation?
Answer
The parasympathetic division. It generally promotes routine maintenance functions.
Card 66
Question
Which brain region is most associated with conscious thought and voluntary movement?
Answer
The cerebrum. Its cortex also processes much sensory information.
Card 67
Question
Which brain region fine-tunes balance and coordinated movement?
Answer
The cerebellum. It compares intended movement with sensory feedback.
Card 68
Question
Which brain region controls vital automatic functions such as breathing and heart rate?
Answer
The brainstem. It also connects higher brain regions with the spinal cord.
Card 69
Question
How do sensory and motor neurons differ?
Answer
Sensory neurons carry information toward the CNS; motor neurons carry commands away. Interneurons connect and process signals within the CNS.
Card 70
Question
What does a sensory receptor do?
Answer
It converts a stimulus into a neural signal. Different receptors respond best to particular forms of energy or chemicals.
Card 71
Question
What is a hormone?
Answer
A chemical messenger released into body fluids to affect target cells. A target responds only if it has the appropriate receptor.
Card 72
Question
Why is the pituitary gland often called a master gland?
Answer
Several pituitary hormones regulate other endocrine glands. The hypothalamus controls much of pituitary activity.
Card 73
Question
Why can one hormone affect some cells but not others?
Answer
Only target cells have the matching receptor. Receptor binding starts the cell's response.
Card 74
Question
Which gland produces hormones that broadly increase metabolic activity?
Answer
The thyroid gland. Thyroid hormones influence energy use and development.
Card 75
Question
What is insulin's main effect on blood glucose?
Answer
It lowers blood glucose. Insulin promotes glucose uptake and storage after a meal.
Card 76
Question
Which glands release a hormone that raises blood calcium?
Answer
The parathyroid glands. Parathyroid hormone acts on bone, kidneys, and vitamin D pathways.
Card 77
Question
Which adrenal region releases epinephrine during acute stress?
Answer
The adrenal medulla. Its hormones reinforce sympathetic nervous-system effects.
Card 78
Question
Which organ has both endocrine and digestive functions?
Answer
The pancreas. Its islets release hormones, while other cells release digestive enzymes.
Card 79
Question
What is glucagon's main effect on blood glucose?
Answer
It raises blood glucose. It promotes release of stored glucose during fasting.
Card 80
Question
Rising thyroid hormone reduces its own upstream stimulation. What pattern is this?
Answer
Negative feedback. The final hormone limits further release along the control pathway.
Card 81
Question
Which adrenal region produces steroid hormones such as cortisol and aldosterone?
Answer
The adrenal cortex. It surrounds the adrenal medulla.
Card 82
Question
Which gland releases melatonin and helps regulate daily sleep timing?
Answer
The pineal gland. Light information influences its secretion pattern.
Card 83
Question
Which hormone directly increases collecting-duct water permeability?
Answer
Antidiuretic hormone, or ADH. It makes collecting ducts more permeable to water, increasing water reabsorption and usually producing less, more concentrated urine.
Card 84
Question
Which hormone strengthens uterine contractions during labor?
Answer
Oxytocin. This is a classic positive-feedback pathway that ends after delivery.
Card 85
Question
How does endocrine signaling generally differ from nervous signaling?
Answer
It is usually slower to start and longer lasting. Hormones travel through body fluids, while neurons signal specific targets rapidly.
Card 86
Question
What is plasma?
Answer
The liquid portion of blood. It carries cells, nutrients, hormones, proteins, wastes, and dissolved gases.
Card 87
Question
Which side of the heart pumps blood to the lungs?
Answer
The right side. The right ventricle sends deoxygenated blood through the pulmonary trunk and arteries.
Card 88
Question
What is the main function of red blood cells?
Answer
Transporting oxygen. Their hemoglobin also carries a smaller share of carbon dioxide.
Card 89
Question
What defines an artery?
Answer
It carries blood away from the heart. Oxygen content does not define it; pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood.
Card 90
Question
What is the main function of white blood cells?
Answer
Body defense. Different white blood cells recognize, attack, or coordinate responses to threats.
Card 91
Question
Which side of the heart pumps blood into systemic circulation?
Answer
The left side. The left ventricle sends oxygenated blood into the aorta.
Card 92
Question
What is the main purpose of heart valves?
Answer
To keep blood moving in one direction. Pressure differences open and close them.
Card 93
Question
What defines a vein?
Answer
It carries blood toward the heart. Many veins contain valves that limit backflow.
Card 94
Question
What is the main role of platelets?
Answer
Helping stop bleeding. They form a platelet plug and support clotting reactions at a damaged vessel.
Card 95
Question
Why are capillaries well suited for exchange?
Answer
Their walls are only one cell layer thick. Their small diameter and large total surface area support diffusion and filtration.
Card 96
Question
After blood enters the right atrium, what chamber receives it next?
Answer
The right ventricle. Blood passes through the tricuspid valve before entering that chamber.
Card 97
Question
What happens during ventricular systole?
Answer
The ventricles contract and eject blood. The right ventricle pumps to the lungs, and the left pumps to the body.
Card 98
Question
What is pulmonary circulation?
Answer
Blood flow between the heart and lungs. It allows gas exchange and returns oxygenated blood to the left atrium.
Card 99
Question
What normally sets the heart's rhythm?
Answer
The sinoatrial, or SA, node. Its spontaneous electrical activity initiates each heartbeat.
Card 100
Question
What molecule in red blood cells binds oxygen?
Answer
Hemoglobin. Its iron-containing heme groups bind oxygen reversibly.
Card 101
Question
What happens during ventricular diastole?
Answer
The ventricles relax and fill. Atrioventricular valves are open during most ventricular filling.
Card 102
Question
What is systemic circulation?
Answer
Blood flow between the heart and the body's tissues. It delivers oxygen and nutrients and returns wastes.
Card 103
Question
What does arterial blood pressure measure?
Answer
The force of blood against artery walls. It is commonly reported as systolic over diastolic pressure.
Card 104
Question
What do coronary arteries supply?
Answer
The heart muscle itself. Blocked coronary blood flow can deprive myocardium of oxygen.
Card 105
Question
Which major vessels return systemic blood to the right atrium?
Answer
The superior and inferior venae cavae. The superior vessel drains the upper body; the inferior drains the lower body.
Card 106
Question
What is the respiratory system's primary gas-exchange function?
Answer
Bringing oxygen into the body and removing carbon dioxide. Ventilation moves air, while diffusion exchanges gases.
Card 107
Question
What is the airflow sequence from the pharynx to the gas-exchange surfaces?
Answer
Pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli. Each branch conducts air deeper into the lungs.
Card 108
Question
Where does most gas exchange occur in the lungs?
Answer
Across the alveolar-capillary membrane. Thin walls and a large surface area shorten diffusion distance.
Card 109
Question
What does the diaphragm do during quiet inhalation?
Answer
It contracts and moves downward. Thoracic volume rises, lung pressure falls, and air flows inward.
Card 110
Question
Why does oxygen move from alveoli into pulmonary capillaries?
Answer
Its partial pressure is higher in alveolar air than in incoming blood. Oxygen diffuses down that gradient.
Card 111
Question
What drives quiet exhalation?
Answer
Elastic recoil after inspiratory muscles relax. Thoracic volume falls and pressure pushes air outward.
Card 112
Question
What is the pleura?
Answer
A double membrane surrounding each lung. A thin fluid layer reduces friction during breathing.
Card 113
Question
How is most oxygen transported in blood?
Answer
Bound to hemoglobin in red blood cells. Only a small amount dissolves directly in plasma.
Card 114
Question
Why does carbon dioxide move from pulmonary blood into alveoli?
Answer
Its partial pressure is higher in incoming blood than in alveolar air. It diffuses down that gradient for exhalation.
Card 115
Question
What helps keep swallowed material out of the airway?
Answer
The epiglottis and coordinated swallowing reflexes. The laryngeal opening is protected as food passes.
Card 116
Question
How does the conducting airway remove trapped particles?
Answer
Mucus traps them, and cilia move the mucus toward the throat. This is the mucociliary escalator.
Card 117
Question
In what form is most carbon dioxide transported in blood?
Answer
As bicarbonate ions. Red blood cells help convert carbon dioxide and water into bicarbonate.
Card 118
Question
Which blood change is a strong normal stimulus to increase breathing?
Answer
A rise in carbon dioxide and the associated fall in pH. Brainstem centers adjust ventilation in response.
Card 119
Question
Why must alveoli receive both air and blood?
Answer
Gas exchange needs ventilation and perfusion. Air without blood flow, or blood without airflow, cannot exchange gases effectively.
Card 120
Question
Why does ventilation increase during exercise?
Answer
Active tissues use more oxygen and produce more carbon dioxide. Faster, deeper breathing helps meet that demand.
Card 121
Question
What are the digestive system's core functions?
Answer
Ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination. Movement and secretion support those processes.
Card 122
Question
What is the alimentary-canal sequence after the mouth?
Answer
Pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, anus. Food passes through this continuous tube.
Card 123
Question
What is mechanical digestion?
Answer
Physical breakdown and mixing of food without changing its molecules. Chewing and stomach churning are examples.
Card 124
Question
What are two major functions of the stomach?
Answer
It stores and mixes food and begins substantial protein digestion. Acid denatures proteins, converts pepsinogen to pepsin, and provides the low pH pepsin needs.
Card 125
Question
Where does most nutrient absorption occur?
Answer
The small intestine. Folds, villi, and microvilli create a large absorptive surface.
Card 126
Question
Which nutrient does salivary amylase begin digesting in the mouth?
Answer
Carbohydrates, especially starch. Salivary amylase breaks starch into smaller carbohydrates.
Card 127
Question
What is chemical digestion?
Answer
Enzymatic breakdown of large food molecules into absorbable units. Chemical bonds are changed during the process.
Card 128
Question
What is peristalsis?
Answer
Wave-like smooth-muscle contractions that move material forward. It occurs throughout much of the digestive tract.
Card 129
Question
What is a main function of the large intestine?
Answer
Absorbing water and electrolytes and forming feces. Resident microbes also process some undigested material.
Card 130
Question
What digestive product does the liver make?
Answer
Bile. Bile salts help disperse dietary fat into smaller droplets.
Card 131
Question
What does a digestive sphincter do?
Answer
It regulates movement between regions of the digestive tract. Circular muscle contracts to close a passage.
Card 132
Question
What does the pancreas release into the small intestine?
Answer
Digestive enzymes and bicarbonate-rich fluid. Bicarbonate helps neutralize acidic material from the stomach.
Card 133
Question
How do intestinal villi improve absorption?
Answer
They increase surface area. Each villus contains blood capillaries and a lymphatic lacteal for transported nutrients.
Card 134
Question
What is the gallbladder's role?
Answer
It stores and concentrates bile. It releases bile into the small intestine when fatty food arrives.
Card 135
Question
Which macronutrient's absorbed products usually enter intestinal lacteals before reaching the blood?
Answer
Most dietary lipids. Their absorbed products travel through lymph before entering the bloodstream.
Card 136
Question
Which accessory organs help digestion without food passing through them?
Answer
The teeth, tongue, salivary glands, liver, gallbladder, and pancreas. Teeth and the tongue act mechanically; the other accessory organs add or store digestive secretions.
Card 137
Question
What organs make up the urinary system?
Answer
The kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra. Kidneys make urine; the remaining organs transport, store, and release it.
Card 138
Question
What is a nephron?
Answer
The kidney's functional unit. It filters blood and adjusts the filtrate to form urine.
Card 139
Question
Where does blood filtration begin in a nephron?
Answer
At the renal corpuscle. Pressure pushes water and small solutes from glomerular capillaries into the capsule.
Card 140
Question
What moves urine from a kidney to the bladder?
Answer
A ureter. Smooth-muscle contractions propel urine along the tube.
Card 141
Question
What is the urinary bladder's main role?
Answer
Temporary urine storage. Stretch receptors help trigger the urge to urinate as it fills.
Card 142
Question
Which structure carries urine from the bladder out of the body?
Answer
The urethra. It is distinct from the ureters that enter the bladder.
Card 143
Question
What is tubular reabsorption?
Answer
Movement of useful substances from nephron fluid back into blood. Water, glucose, and ions are common examples.
Card 144
Question
What is the glomerulus?
Answer
A capillary tuft that filters blood in the renal corpuscle. Cells and most large proteins normally remain in circulation.
Card 145
Question
How does more ADH change urine?
Answer
It makes urine more concentrated and lowers its volume. More water is reabsorbed from the collecting ducts.
Card 146
Question
What path does filtrate follow after entering the glomerular capsule?
Answer
Proximal convoluted tubule → nephron loop → distal convoluted tubule → collecting duct. The collecting duct receives forming urine from multiple nephrons.
Card 147
Question
What is tubular secretion?
Answer
Movement of selected substances from blood into nephron fluid. It helps eliminate wastes and regulate ions and pH.
Card 148
Question
Besides removing waste, what does the urinary system regulate?
Answer
Water, electrolytes, acid-base balance, and blood volume. Kidney hormones also affect blood pressure and red-cell production.
Card 149
Question
Why does dehydration usually reduce urine volume?
Answer
The body conserves water by increasing renal reabsorption. ADH is an important signal in this response.
Card 150
Question
Why do the kidneys receive a large blood flow?
Answer
They must continuously filter plasma and regulate its composition. High flow supports waste removal and homeostasis.
Card 151
Question
What is lymph?
Answer
Interstitial fluid that has entered lymphatic vessels. It eventually returns to the bloodstream.
Card 152
Question
What is innate immunity?
Answer
Rapid, nonspecific defense present before a particular exposure. Barriers, inflammation, and several immune cells contribute.
Card 153
Question
What is a major function of lymph nodes?
Answer
Filtering lymph and providing sites for immune-cell activation. Swelling can reflect an active immune response.
Card 154
Question
What does the spleen filter?
Answer
Blood. It removes aged blood cells and supports immune responses to blood-borne antigens.
Card 155
Question
What is a key function of B lymphocytes?
Answer
Producing antibody-secreting cells and memory cells. Antibodies bind specific antigens.
Card 156
Question
What distinguishes adaptive immunity?
Answer
It targets specific antigens and develops memory. Later exposure can trigger a faster, stronger response.
Card 157
Question
Which lymphatic organ is important for T-cell maturation?
Answer
The thymus. It is most active early in life.
Card 158
Question
What is the body's first physical barrier against many pathogens?
Answer
Intact skin and mucous membranes. Their secretions and normal microbes add protection.
Card 159
Question
What is a key function of T lymphocytes?
Answer
Coordinating immune responses or killing infected cells. Different T-cell types perform different roles.
Card 160
Question
What does an antibody bind?
Answer
A specific antigen. Binding can neutralize a target or mark it for other immune defenses.
Card 161
Question
What is the purpose of inflammation after tissue injury?
Answer
To contain damage, recruit defenses, and begin repair. Redness, heat, swelling, and pain can accompany it.
Card 162
Question
Why is a second adaptive response often faster than the first?
Answer
Memory lymphocytes remain after the first exposure. They respond quickly when the same antigen appears again.
Card 163
Question
What does a phagocyte do?
Answer
It engulfs particles, microbes, or debris. Neutrophils and macrophages are important examples.
Card 164
Question
How does vaccination support adaptive immunity?
Answer
It safely exposes the immune system to antigen information. This promotes memory without requiring the full disease.
Card 165
Question
Why is lymphatic fluid return important?
Answer
It prevents excess interstitial fluid from accumulating. Lymphatic vessels return fluid and leaked proteins to blood.
Card 166
Question
What structures belong to the integumentary system?
Answer
Skin, hair, nails, sweat glands, and sebaceous glands. Together they form the body's outer covering.
Card 167
Question
What is the epidermis?
Answer
The outer epithelial layer of skin. It is avascular and contains protective keratinized cells.
Card 168
Question
How does sweating cool the body?
Answer
Evaporation removes heat from the skin. Skin blood-flow changes also help regulate heat loss.
Card 169
Question
What is a major role of melanin in skin?
Answer
Absorbing some ultraviolet radiation. It also contributes to skin and hair color.
Card 170
Question
How does skin contribute to sensation?
Answer
Sensory receptors detect touch, pressure, pain, and temperature. Nerves carry that information to the CNS.
Card 171
Question
What is the dermis?
Answer
The connective-tissue layer beneath the epidermis. It contains vessels, nerves, glands, and hair follicles.
Card 172
Question
How does skin support vitamin D production?
Answer
Ultraviolet light starts conversion of a skin molecule into a vitamin D precursor. The liver and kidneys complete activation.
Card 173
Question
Why does a deep skin wound bleed but a shallow epidermal scrape may not?
Answer
Blood vessels are in the dermis, not the epidermis. A wound must reach vascular tissue to damage them.
Card 174
Question
What is a gamete?
Answer
A haploid reproductive cell. Human sperm and oocytes each carry 23 chromosomes.
Card 175
Question
What are the testes' two main reproductive functions?
Answer
Producing sperm and secreting testosterone. Sperm develop in seminiferous tubules.
Card 176
Question
What tube carries sperm from the epididymis toward the ejaculatory duct?
Answer
The ductus, or vas, deferens. Smooth muscle propels sperm during ejaculation.
Card 177
Question
What is ovulation?
Answer
Release of a secondary oocyte from an ovary. A surge in luteinizing hormone helps trigger it.
Card 178
Question
Where does fertilization usually occur?
Answer
In a uterine tube. The early embryo then travels toward the uterus.
Card 179
Question
What are the ovaries' two main reproductive functions?
Answer
Producing oocytes and secreting sex hormones. Estrogen and progesterone help regulate the reproductive cycle.
Card 180
Question
What is the uterus' main reproductive role?
Answer
Supporting implantation and development of an embryo and fetus. Its muscular wall also contracts during birth.
Card 181
Question
What causes menstruation when pregnancy does not occur?
Answer
Falling ovarian hormones allow the uterine lining to shed. A new cycle then begins.
Card 182
Question
How does a sperm cell's structure support its function?
Answer
Its flagellum provides movement, and its head carries DNA plus enzymes used during fertilization. Mitochondria supply energy in the midpiece.
Card 183
Question
What is the placenta's exchange role?
Answer
It allows gases, nutrients, and wastes to move between maternal and fetal circulations. Their blood normally does not mix directly.
Card 184
Question
Why is meiosis necessary for sexual reproduction?
Answer
It halves chromosome number in gametes. Fertilization then restores the diploid number.
Card 185
Question
How do sex hormones regulate reproductive control pathways?
Answer
They usually feed back on the hypothalamus and pituitary. This adjusts release of hormones that act on the gonads.
Card 186
Question
What does cell theory state?
Answer
Living things are made of cells, cells are the basic units of life, and cells come from existing cells. These ideas link organism structure with cell division.
Card 187
Question
What is the defining structural feature of a prokaryotic cell?
Answer
It lacks a membrane-bound nucleus. Its DNA occupies a nucleoid region.
Card 188
Question
What is the cell membrane's main role?
Answer
Regulating movement between the cell and its environment. Its phospholipid bilayer is selectively permeable.
Card 189
Question
What is the nucleus' main role?
Answer
Storing most of a eukaryotic cell's DNA. Nuclear pores regulate exchange with the cytoplasm.
Card 190
Question
Where are proteins assembled?
Answer
At ribosomes. Ribosomes may float in cytosol or attach to rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Card 191
Question
What distinguishes a eukaryotic cell from a prokaryotic cell?
Answer
A eukaryotic cell has a membrane-bound nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. Animals, plants, fungi, and protists are eukaryotes.
Card 192
Question
What is a mitochondrion's main function?
Answer
Producing most cellular ATP through aerobic respiration. Its inner membrane provides a large reaction surface.
Card 193
Question
What does rough endoplasmic reticulum mainly produce?
Answer
Proteins for secretion, membranes, or organelles. Ribosomes on its surface make the proteins.
Card 194
Question
Which organelle carries out photosynthesis in plants and algae?
Answer
The chloroplast. It converts light energy into chemical energy stored in organic molecules.
Card 195
Question
What does the Golgi apparatus do?
Answer
It modifies, sorts, and packages cell products. Vesicles carry those products to their destinations.
Card 196
Question
What is a lysosome's role?
Answer
Digesting worn cell parts and engulfed material. Its enzymes work best in an acidic interior.
Card 197
Question
What are major functions of smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
Answer
Lipid synthesis, detoxification, and calcium storage. Its membrane lacks attached ribosomes.
Card 198
Question
What does the cytoskeleton provide?
Answer
Cell shape, internal organization, movement, and transport tracks. It is built from protein filaments.
Card 199
Question
What is diffusion?
Answer
Net movement from higher to lower concentration. It is passive and continues until dynamic equilibrium is reached.
Card 200
Question
What happens to an animal cell in a strongly hypotonic solution?
Answer
Water enters and the cell swells. Without a cell wall, it may burst.
Card 201
Question
What happens during interphase?
Answer
The cell grows, performs normal functions, and copies its DNA. Interphase precedes mitotic division.
Card 202
Question
What is the result of mitosis followed by cytokinesis?
Answer
Two genetically similar daughter cells. Chromosome number is normally preserved.
Card 203
Question
What is osmosis?
Answer
Diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane. Water moves toward the side with more nonpenetrating solute.
Card 204
Question
What happens to an animal cell in a hypertonic solution?
Answer
Water leaves and the cell shrinks. The external solution has a higher effective solute concentration.
Card 205
Question
Why are cells generally small?
Answer
A high surface-area-to-volume ratio supports efficient exchange. Volume grows faster than surface area as a cell enlarges.
Card 206
Question
What is cytokinesis?
Answer
Division of the cytoplasm. It separates one cell into two after nuclear division.
Card 207
Question
How does active transport differ from passive transport?
Answer
It uses energy to move substances against a gradient. Passive transport moves down a gradient without direct energy input.
Card 208
Question
What happens to an animal cell in an isotonic solution?
Answer
There is no net water movement. Water still crosses in both directions at equal rates.
Card 209
Question
Which structures are typical of plant cells but not animal cells?
Answer
A cellulose cell wall, chloroplasts, and a large central vacuole. Both cell types have membranes, nuclei, and mitochondria.
Card 210
Question
How do cells contribute to a multicellular organism's organization?
Answer
Specialized cells form tissues, tissues form organs, and organs form systems. Division of labor supports complex functions.
Card 211
Question
What is DNA's primary biological role?
Answer
Storing hereditary information. Its nucleotide sequence contains instructions used to build functional RNA and proteins.
Card 212
Question
What are the three parts of a DNA nucleotide?
Answer
A deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. Nucleotides link to form each strand.
Card 213
Question
Which bases pair in double-stranded DNA?
Answer
Adenine with thymine, and cytosine with guanine. Hydrogen bonds hold complementary strands together.
Card 214
Question
How does RNA differ from DNA?
Answer
RNA usually has ribose, uses uracil instead of thymine, and is usually single-stranded. Several RNA types help express genes.
Card 215
Question
What is a gene?
Answer
A DNA sequence that contributes to a functional product. The product may be a protein or a functional RNA.
Card 216
Question
What is a chromosome?
Answer
A long DNA molecule packaged with proteins. It contains many genes and other sequences.
Card 217
Question
What is DNA replication?
Answer
Copying DNA before cell division. Each new DNA molecule contains one old strand and one newly made strand.
Card 218
Question
What is the usual flow of information from a protein-coding gene?
Answer
DNA to RNA to protein. Transcription makes RNA; translation builds the polypeptide.
Card 219
Question
What happens during transcription?
Answer
RNA is synthesized from a DNA template. For a protein-coding gene, that RNA functions as or is processed into messenger RNA.
Card 220
Question
What does messenger RNA carry?
Answer
A copy of coding information from DNA to a ribosome. Its codons specify the amino-acid sequence.
Card 221
Question
What is a codon?
Answer
A three-nucleotide sequence in mRNA. Most codons specify an amino acid; some signal start or stop.
Card 222
Question
What is the usual role of the AUG codon?
Answer
It starts translation and specifies methionine. The ribosome uses it to establish the reading frame.
Card 223
Question
What happens during translation?
Answer
A ribosome reads mRNA and joins amino acids into a polypeptide. Transfer RNAs match codons with amino acids.
446 cards
ATI TEAS 7 Science Flashcards: A&P, Biology, Chemistry & Scientific Reasoning
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Card 224
Question
What is transfer RNA's role in protein synthesis?
Answer
It carries an amino acid and matches its anticodon to an mRNA codon. This places the correct amino acid in sequence.
Card 225
Question
What is an anticodon?
Answer
A three-base sequence on tRNA complementary to an mRNA codon. Pairing helps decode the message.
Card 226
Question
What is a mutation?
Answer
A change in a DNA sequence. Its effect may be harmful, neutral, or beneficial depending on location and context.
Card 227
Question
Why can a one-base insertion in a coding sequence have a large effect?
Answer
It can shift the reading frame. Every downstream codon may change until a stop signal appears.
Card 228
Question
Why can changing one amino acid alter a protein's function?
Answer
Amino-acid sequence helps determine folding and shape. Shape controls many protein interactions.
Card 229
Question
What is ribosomal RNA's role in protein synthesis?
Answer
It forms the structural and catalytic core of ribosomes. Ribosomal RNA helps align translation components and catalyzes peptide-bond formation.
Card 230
Question
Why can different cell types contain the same DNA but perform different jobs?
Answer
They express different sets of genes. Different proteins give cells different structures and functions.
Card 231
Question
Which mutation can be passed to offspring?
Answer
A mutation present in a gamete-forming lineage. A mutation limited to ordinary body cells is not inherited through reproduction.
Card 232
Question
What is an allele?
Answer
An alternative version of a gene. Diploid individuals usually carry two alleles for each autosomal gene.
Card 233
Question
What is genotype?
Answer
An organism's allele combination for a gene or set of genes. Genotype contributes to phenotype.
Card 234
Question
What does homozygous mean?
Answer
Having two identical alleles for a gene. Examples include AA and aa.
Card 235
Question
What makes an allele dominant in a simple Mendelian trait?
Answer
One copy is enough for its phenotype to appear in a heterozygote. Dominant does not mean common or beneficial.
Card 236
Question
What does Mendel's law of segregation describe?
Answer
The two alleles for a gene separate during gamete formation. Each gamete receives one allele.
Card 237
Question
What is phenotype?
Answer
An observable trait or characteristic. It can reflect genotype, environment, and their interaction.
Card 238
Question
What does heterozygous mean?
Answer
Having two different alleles for a gene. An example is Aa.
Card 239
Question
When does a recessive phenotype usually appear in a simple autosomal trait?
Answer
When both alleles are recessive. A heterozygote carries the allele without showing that phenotype.
Card 240
Question
When does independent assortment apply most clearly?
Answer
When genes are on different chromosomes or far apart on the same chromosome. Their allele pairs enter gametes independently.
Card 241
Question
What does a Punnett square predict?
Answer
Expected offspring genotype probabilities from specified parental gametes. It does not guarantee outcomes in a small family.
Card 242
Question
For Aa × Aa, what is the chance of an aa offspring?
Answer
One fourth, or 25%. The genotype ratio is expected to be 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa.
Card 243
Question
For Aa × Aa with complete dominance, what phenotypic ratio is expected?
Answer
Three dominant-phenotype offspring to one recessive-phenotype offspring. This is a probability across many offspring.
Card 244
Question
How can a test cross reveal the genotype behind a dominant phenotype?
Answer
Cross the individual with a homozygous recessive partner. Recessive offspring show that the unknown parent carried a recessive allele.
Card 245
Question
What happens in incomplete dominance?
Answer
A heterozygote has an intermediate phenotype. Neither allele fully masks the other.
Card 246
Question
How is the probability of two independent genetic events both occurring found?
Answer
Multiply their individual probabilities. This is the product rule.
Card 247
Question
What does a pedigree show?
Answer
How a trait appears across generations of a family. Its pattern can suggest a mode of inheritance.
Card 248
Question
Why can two parents have offspring ratios that differ from a Punnett-square expectation?
Answer
Each fertilization is a chance event. Expected ratios become more apparent with larger numbers of offspring.
Card 249
Question
What happens in codominance?
Answer
Both alleles are distinctly expressed in a heterozygote. The AB blood type is a common example.
Card 250
Question
What are major roles of carbohydrates?
Answer
Providing quick energy, storing energy, and forming some structures. Monosaccharides are their basic building blocks.
Card 251
Question
What is a monomer?
Answer
A small building block that can join with others to form a larger molecule. Glucose, amino acids, and nucleotides are examples in different classes.
Card 252
Question
What happens in a dehydration-synthesis reaction?
Answer
Monomers join while water is removed. The reaction builds a larger biological molecule.
Card 253
Question
What does an enzyme do?
Answer
It lowers activation energy and speeds a reaction without being consumed. Its shape helps it bind specific substrates.
Card 254
Question
What are major roles of lipids?
Answer
Long-term energy storage, membranes, insulation, and signaling. Lipids are mostly nonpolar and do not mix well with water.
Card 255
Question
What does it mean for a protein to denature?
Answer
Its normal shape is disrupted. Heat, extreme pH, or chemicals can reduce its function.
Card 256
Question
What happens during hydrolysis?
Answer
Water is used to split a larger molecule into smaller units. Digestion often uses hydrolysis reactions.
Card 257
Question
Why do phospholipids form bilayers in water?
Answer
Their hydrophilic heads interact with water while hydrophobic tails turn inward. This arrangement forms cell-membrane structure.
Card 258
Question
What are proteins built from?
Answer
Amino acids linked by peptide bonds. Their folded shapes support enzymes, transport, signaling, structure, and movement.
Card 259
Question
How do starch and glycogen compare?
Answer
Both store glucose; plants use starch and animals use glycogen. Their branching patterns differ.
Card 260
Question
How do saturated and unsaturated fatty acids differ?
Answer
Saturated fatty acids lack carbon-carbon double bonds; unsaturated ones have one or more. Double bonds often introduce bends.
Card 261
Question
What immediate energy-carrying molecule powers many cell processes?
Answer
ATP. Energy released from nutrients can be transferred into ATP's phosphate bonds.
Card 262
Question
What are nucleic acids built from?
Answer
Nucleotides. DNA stores hereditary information, while RNA performs several roles in gene expression.
Card 263
Question
Which elements are common in all four major biological macromolecule classes?
Answer
Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. Nitrogen and phosphorus occur prominently in some classes.
Card 264
Question
Why is three-dimensional shape important for macromolecules?
Answer
Shape determines many interactions and functions. A changed shape can prevent a molecule from binding its target.
Card 265
Question
What are triglycerides built from?
Answer
One glycerol molecule and three fatty acids. They join through ester bonds to form a common energy-storage lipid.
Card 266
Question
What is a pathogen?
Answer
An agent capable of causing disease. Not every microorganism is pathogenic.
Card 267
Question
What type of cell is a bacterium?
Answer
A prokaryotic cell. Bacteria usually reproduce by binary fission.
Card 268
Question
What cell type do fungi have?
Answer
Eukaryotic cells. Some fungi are unicellular yeasts, while others form multicellular filaments.
Card 269
Question
What does disease transmission describe?
Answer
How an infectious agent moves to a susceptible host. Routes include contact, droplets, airborne spread, food, water, and vectors.
Card 270
Question
What is a biological vector?
Answer
An organism that becomes infected with a pathogen and transmits it between hosts. The pathogen survives or reproduces inside the vector, unlike transport by a mechanical carrier.
Card 271
Question
Why are viruses dependent on host cells?
Answer
They lack the complete machinery for reproduction and metabolism. They use host components to make new virus particles.
Card 272
Question
What is a protist?
Answer
A diverse eukaryote that is not classified as an animal, plant, or fungus. Some protists cause disease, while many do not.
Card 273
Question
Why do antibiotics not treat viral infections?
Answer
They target bacterial structures or processes that viruses lack. Antiviral drugs use different targets.
Card 274
Question
How can normal microbiota protect a host?
Answer
They occupy space and use resources that pathogens might otherwise exploit. Some also support digestion or immune development.
Card 275
Question
How does sterilization differ from disinfection?
Answer
Sterilization destroys or removes all microbial life, including resistant forms; disinfection reduces pathogens on objects. The required method depends on use.
Card 276
Question
How do infection and disease differ?
Answer
Infection means an agent is established in a host; disease means normal function is impaired and signs or symptoms occur. Infection may be asymptomatic.
Card 277
Question
How can breaking a transmission route reduce infectious disease?
Answer
It interrupts the chain connecting a source with a susceptible host. Hand hygiene, clean water, ventilation, and vector control target different links.
Card 278
Question
What is an atom?
Answer
The smallest unit of an element that retains that element's chemical identity. Atoms contain a nucleus surrounded by electrons.
Card 279
Question
What charge and location does an electron have?
Answer
Negative charge in the electron cloud around the nucleus. Electrons drive most chemical bonding.
Card 280
Question
Why are valence electrons important?
Answer
They participate most directly in bonding and reactions. Their arrangement helps predict chemical behavior.
Card 281
Question
What do elements in the same periodic-table group often share?
Answer
Similar valence-electron patterns and chemical properties. A group is a vertical column.
Card 282
Question
What is an ion?
Answer
An atom or group of atoms with a net electric charge. Its total numbers of protons and electrons are unequal.
Card 283
Question
What charge and location does a proton have?
Answer
Positive charge in the nucleus. The number of protons determines the element.
Card 284
Question
What does an element's atomic number equal?
Answer
Its number of protons. A neutral atom has the same number of electrons.
Card 285
Question
How does a neutral atom form a cation?
Answer
By losing one or more electrons. It has more protons than electrons and a positive charge.
Card 286
Question
An atom has 8 protons. How many electrons does it have if it is neutral?
Answer
Eight electrons. Neutral atoms have equal positive and negative charges.
Card 287
Question
What charge and location does a neutron have?
Answer
No electric charge, in the nucleus. Neutron number can vary among isotopes of an element.
Card 288
Question
What does mass number equal?
Answer
Protons plus neutrons in one atom. It is a whole number for a specific isotope.
Card 289
Question
How does a neutral atom form an anion?
Answer
By gaining one or more electrons. It has more electrons than protons and a negative charge.
Card 290
Question
What does a period represent on the periodic table?
Answer
A horizontal row. Moving across a period changes proton number one element at a time.
Card 291
Question
What are isotopes?
Answer
Atoms of the same element with different numbers of neutrons. They have the same atomic number but different mass numbers.
Card 292
Question
What is matter?
Answer
Anything that has mass and occupies space. Solids, liquids, gases, and plasma are forms of matter.
Card 293
Question
What distinguishes a solid from a liquid or gas?
Answer
A solid has a definite shape and volume. Its particles vibrate around relatively fixed positions.
Card 294
Question
What is a physical change?
Answer
A change in form or state without changing chemical identity. Melting and cutting are examples.
Card 295
Question
What is a physical property?
Answer
A characteristic observed without changing a substance's identity. Density, color, and melting point are examples.
Card 296
Question
How does an element differ from a compound?
Answer
An element contains one kind of atom; a compound contains elements chemically combined in fixed proportions. Chemical methods can separate a compound into simpler substances.
Card 297
Question
What distinguishes a liquid?
Answer
It has a definite volume but takes the shape of its container. Its particles remain close while moving past one another.
Card 298
Question
What is a chemical change?
Answer
A process that forms one or more substances with new chemical identities. Bond rearrangement occurs.
Card 299
Question
What is a chemical property?
Answer
A substance's ability to undergo a particular chemical change. Flammability and reactivity with acid are examples.
Card 300
Question
Which phase changes connect solids and liquids?
Answer
Melting changes a solid to a liquid; freezing changes a liquid to a solid. These are opposite physical changes.
Card 301
Question
How does a pure substance differ from a mixture?
Answer
A pure substance has a fixed composition and is an element or compound; a mixture has variable composition and physically combined components. Mixture components retain their identities.
Card 302
Question
What distinguishes a gas?
Answer
It has neither a definite shape nor a definite volume. It expands to fill its container.
Card 303
Question
What is the formula for density?
Answer
Density = mass ÷ volume. Density is an intensive property.
Card 304
Question
Which phase changes connect liquids and gases?
Answer
Vaporization changes a liquid to a gas; condensation changes a gas to a liquid. Evaporation is vaporization at a liquid's surface.
Card 305
Question
What is a mixture?
Answer
Two or more substances physically combined in variable proportions. Its components retain their chemical identities.
Card 306
Question
How do intensive and extensive properties differ?
Answer
Intensive properties do not depend on sample amount; extensive properties do. Density and temperature are intensive, while mass and volume are extensive.
Card 307
Question
A 20 g sample occupies 5 mL. What is its density?
Answer
4 g/mL. Divide 20 g by 5 mL.
Card 308
Question
Which phase changes connect solids and gases directly?
Answer
Sublimation changes a solid to a gas; deposition changes a gas to a solid. Neither transition passes through the liquid state.
Card 309
Question
How do homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures differ?
Answer
A homogeneous mixture is uniform throughout; a heterogeneous mixture is not. A solution is homogeneous.
Card 310
Question
Where are reactants and products written in a chemical equation?
Answer
Reactants are on the left; products are on the right. The arrow shows the direction represented.
Card 311
Question
Why must a chemical equation be balanced?
Answer
Atoms are conserved in ordinary chemical reactions. Each element must have the same atom count on both sides.
Card 312
Question
What does a coefficient in a chemical equation change?
Answer
The number of whole particles or moles represented. It multiplies every atom in the following formula.
Card 313
Question
Why should subscripts not be changed when balancing an equation?
Answer
Changing a subscript changes the substance's identity. Balancing changes coefficients only.
Card 314
Question
What coefficients balance H₂ + O₂ → H₂O?
Answer
2, 1, 2: 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O. Both sides then contain four hydrogen atoms and two oxygen atoms.
Card 315
Question
What pattern defines a synthesis reaction?
Answer
Two or more reactants form a more complex product. A general pattern is A + B → AB.
Card 316
Question
What are typical products when a hydrocarbon burns completely in oxygen?
Answer
Carbon dioxide and water. Incomplete combustion can produce carbon monoxide or carbon.
Card 317
Question
What is the net ionic equation for a typical strong acid–strong base neutralization?
Answer
H⁺(aq) + OH⁻(aq) → H₂O(l). The remaining ions are spectators and do not appear in the net ionic equation.
Card 318
Question
What is a precipitate?
Answer
An insoluble solid that forms from substances in solution. Its appearance can signal a chemical reaction.
Card 319
Question
What pattern defines a decomposition reaction?
Answer
One compound breaks into simpler products. A general pattern is AB → A + B.
Card 320
Question
What is an exothermic reaction?
Answer
A reaction that releases heat to the surroundings. The surroundings often warm.
Card 321
Question
What occurs in an oxidation-reduction reaction?
Answer
Electrons transfer or atoms change oxidation state. Oxidation is electron loss; reduction is electron gain.
Card 322
Question
What is activation energy?
Answer
The minimum energy barrier reactants must overcome to react. Catalysts lower this barrier.
Card 323
Question
Which observations can provide evidence of a chemical reaction?
Answer
Gas formation, a precipitate, sustained color change, light, or temperature change. No single sign proves a reaction without context.
Card 324
Question
What is an endothermic reaction?
Answer
A reaction that absorbs heat from the surroundings. The surroundings may cool.
Card 325
Question
Why does raising temperature usually speed a reaction?
Answer
Particles collide more often and with greater energy. More collisions overcome activation energy.
Card 326
Question
Why can higher reactant concentration increase reaction rate?
Answer
More reactant particles occupy a given volume. This raises collision frequency.
Card 327
Question
Why does powdered solid often react faster than one large piece?
Answer
Powder exposes more surface area. More particles are available for collisions.
Card 328
Question
How does a catalyst speed a reaction?
Answer
It provides a pathway with lower activation energy. The catalyst is regenerated rather than consumed overall.
Card 329
Question
How can increasing pressure affect a reaction between gases?
Answer
It can increase rate by bringing gas particles closer together. Collision frequency rises when volume falls.
Card 330
Question
What does a reaction inhibitor do?
Answer
It slows a reaction. It may block a pathway, interfere with a catalyst, or remove reactive intermediates.
Card 331
Question
Why can very high temperature slow an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
Answer
The enzyme can denature and lose its active shape. Moderate warming helps only within the enzyme's stable range.
Card 332
Question
What is dynamic equilibrium?
Answer
Forward and reverse reactions continue at equal rates. Concentrations remain constant even though particles still react.
Card 333
Question
Does a catalyst change the final equilibrium amounts?
Answer
No. It speeds forward and reverse reactions, so equilibrium is reached sooner without changing its position.
Card 334
Question
At equilibrium, what usually happens when the concentration of a dissolved or gaseous reactant increases?
Answer
The system shifts toward consuming some added reactant. It forms more product until a new equilibrium is reached.
Card 335
Question
What is a solution?
Answer
A homogeneous mixture. Its components are uniformly distributed at the molecular or ionic level.
Card 336
Question
How do solute and solvent differ?
Answer
The solute is dissolved; the solvent is the dissolving medium. The solvent is often present in greater amount.
Card 337
Question
What does aqueous mean in chemistry?
Answer
Dissolved in water. The symbol
(aq)marks an aqueous species in an equation.Card 338
Question
What does concentration describe?
Answer
The amount of solute in a given amount of solution or solvent. Different units express it in different ways.
Card 339
Question
What is molarity?
Answer
Moles of solute per liter of solution. Its unit is mol/L, written M.
Card 340
Question
What is the molarity of 0.50 mol solute in 2.0 L of solution?
Answer
0.25 M. Divide 0.50 mol by 2.0 L.
Card 341
Question
What stays constant when water is added to dilute a solution without reaction?
Answer
The moles of solute. Volume increases and concentration decreases.
Card 342
Question
Which equation relates concentration and volume before and after a dilution?
Answer
M₁V₁ = M₂V₂. It follows from conserving the amount of solute.
Card 343
Question
What is solubility?
Answer
The maximum concentration of a solute that can be achieved in a solution at equilibrium under specified conditions. Temperature and the substances involved matter.
Card 344
Question
What is a saturated solution?
Answer
A solution holding the maximum dissolved solute at those conditions. Extra solute remains undissolved at equilibrium.
Card 345
Question
What is an electrolyte?
Answer
A substance that produces mobile ions in solution and conducts electricity. Soluble ionic compounds are common examples.
Card 346
Question
What does 'like dissolves like' predict?
Answer
Substances with similar polarity tend to mix well. Polar solvents favor polar or ionic solutes; nonpolar solvents favor nonpolar solutes.
Card 347
Question
Does heating always increase solubility?
Answer
No. Many solids become more soluble in water, but gases usually become less soluble as temperature rises.
Card 348
Question
What is an unsaturated solution?
Answer
A solution that can dissolve more solute at the stated conditions. It is below the solubility limit.
Card 349
Question
What does a Brønsted-Lowry acid donate?
Answer
A proton, H⁺. In water, acid behavior increases hydronium-ion concentration.
Card 350
Question
What does pH describe?
Answer
The hydronium-ion concentration on a logarithmic scale. Lower pH means higher hydronium concentration.
Card 351
Question
At 25 °C, what pH range is acidic?
Answer
Below 7. A neutral aqueous solution is pH 7 at this temperature.
Card 352
Question
How does hydronium concentration change when pH drops by 1 unit?
Answer
It increases tenfold. The pH scale is logarithmic.
Card 353
Question
What does a Brønsted-Lowry base accept?
Answer
A proton, H⁺. Many bases in water also increase hydroxide-ion concentration.
Card 354
Question
At 25 °C, what is the relationship between pH and pOH?
Answer
pH + pOH = 14. pOH is the negative base-10 logarithm of hydroxide-ion concentration; this relation applies to aqueous solutions at 25 °C.
Card 355
Question
At 25 °C, what pH range is basic?
Answer
Above 7. Basic solutions have less hydronium and more hydroxide than neutral water.
Card 356
Question
What are typical products of a strong acid reacting with a strong base?
Answer
Water and an ionic salt. Hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions combine to form water.
Card 357
Question
What does strong mean for an acid or base?
Answer
It produces its characteristic ions essentially completely in water. Strong acids ionize; soluble ionic strong bases dissociate. Strength is separate from concentration.
Card 358
Question
What does a buffer do?
Answer
It resists large pH changes when small amounts of acid or base are added. A weak conjugate acid-base pair neutralizes much of the added H₃O⁺ or OH⁻.
Card 359
Question
How does an acid-base indicator work?
Answer
Its color depends on pH. The change occurs over a characteristic pH range.
Card 360
Question
A solution has pH 9 at 25 °C. What is its pOH?
Answer
5. Subtract the pH from 14.
Card 361
Question
How does a concentrated weak acid differ from a dilute strong acid?
Answer
Concentration tells how much acid is present; strength tells how completely it ionizes. A concentrated weak acid contains more partially ionizing acid, while a dilute strong acid contains less acid that ionizes essentially completely. Either can have the lower pH.
Card 362
Question
What is the SI base unit of length?
Answer
The meter (m). Centimeters and millimeters are decimal subdivisions of a meter.
Card 363
Question
Which tool directly measures mass in a laboratory?
Answer
A balance. A spring scale measures force, often reported as weight.
Card 364
Question
What is the SI base unit of mass?
Answer
The kilogram (kg). Laboratory mass is also commonly reported in grams.
Card 365
Question
A student needs to measure about 35 mL of liquid and can choose a beaker or graduated cylinder. Which should they use?
Answer
A graduated cylinder. Read the scale at eye level.
Card 366
Question
What is the SI base unit of time?
Answer
The second (s). Minutes and hours are accepted for many everyday uses.
Card 367
Question
Where should the volume of a clear water-based liquid be read in a graduated cylinder?
Answer
At the bottom of the meniscus. Keep your eye level with the liquid surface.
Card 368
Question
What is the SI base unit of thermodynamic temperature?
Answer
The kelvin (K). Degrees Celsius are widely used for laboratory and body temperatures.
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Question
Which tool measures temperature?
Answer
A thermometer. Its range and resolution should match the task.
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Question
What factor does the metric prefix kilo- represent?
Answer
One thousand, or 10³. One kilometer equals 1,000 meters.
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Question
A ruler's smallest marking is 1 mm. To what place should a careful analog reading usually be estimated?
Answer
One place beyond the smallest marking, when the scale allows it. The final digit is uncertain.
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Question
What is measurement accuracy?
Answer
Closeness to an accepted or true value. A systematic error can make precise measurements inaccurate.
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Question
How do mass and weight differ?
Answer
Mass is the amount of matter; weight is gravitational force on that mass. Mass stays constant when gravity changes, but weight does not.
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Question
What factor does the metric prefix milli- represent?
Answer
One thousandth, or 10⁻³. One milliliter is 0.001 liter.
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Question
How can the volume of an irregular solid be measured with water?
Answer
Use water displacement. Subtract the initial water volume from the final volume after submerging the object.
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What is measurement precision?
Answer
Closeness of repeated measurements to one another. Precise results can still be consistently wrong.
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What is an instrument's resolution?
Answer
The smallest change it can meaningfully display or distinguish. Higher resolution does not automatically guarantee accuracy.
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Question
How many centimeters are in 2.5 meters?
Answer
2.5 × 10² cm (250 cm). Multiply meters by the exact conversion factor 100 cm/m.
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Question
Why must a numerical measurement include a unit?
Answer
The unit identifies the quantity's scale. A bare number is ambiguous and cannot be compared reliably.
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Question
What is a scientific observation?
Answer
Information recorded with senses or instruments. It should be distinguished from an explanation of what was observed.
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Question
What makes a hypothesis scientifically useful?
Answer
It is testable and falsifiable. Evidence must be able to count against it.
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What is a scientific theory?
Answer
A broad, well-supported explanation of natural phenomena. It is not a casual guess and can be revised with new evidence.
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Question
Which claim is falsifiable: 'No possible observation could count against this treatment's effectiveness' or 'This treatment lowers mean temperature within one hour'?
Answer
The claim that the treatment lowers mean temperature within one hour. An observation could count against it, so evidence can test it.
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Question
What is an inference?
Answer
A logical interpretation based on observations and prior knowledge. It goes beyond the raw measurement.
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How does a prediction relate to a hypothesis?
Answer
It states an expected result if the hypothesis is correct. Experiments compare observed results with that expectation.
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How does a scientific law differ from a scientific theory?
Answer
A law describes a consistent pattern; a theory explains how or why patterns occur. One does not mature into the other.
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What does reliability mean for a measurement or procedure?
Answer
It produces consistent results under the same conditions. Repetition helps assess reliability.
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Question
What does a correlation show?
Answer
Two variables change together in a patterned way. Correlation alone does not establish that one causes the other.
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What is bias in scientific work?
Answer
A systematic influence that pushes observations, selection, or interpretation in one direction. Good design tries to prevent or measure it.
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Question
What is the purpose of scientific peer review?
Answer
Independent experts evaluate methods, reasoning, and reporting before publication. It improves scrutiny but does not guarantee truth.
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Question
What does validity ask about a study or measurement?
Answer
Whether it measures or tests what it claims to measure or test. Consistency alone does not ensure validity.
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What evidence most strengthens a causal claim?
Answer
A well-controlled experiment that manipulates the suspected cause. Random assignment reduces confounding, while independent replication tests whether the result holds with new data.
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Question
What is a primary scientific source?
Answer
A report of original methods, data, and results. A review article synthesizes many primary studies.
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Question
How should an unexpected outlier be handled?
Answer
Investigate and report it rather than deleting it automatically. Exclusion needs a documented scientific reason.
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Question
What is a confounding variable?
Answer
An outside factor related to both the suspected cause and the outcome. It can create a misleading association.
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Question
Why should a sample represent the population of interest?
Answer
Results generalize poorly when important groups are missing or overrepresented. Sampling method matters as much as size.
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Question
What is a scientific model?
Answer
A simplified representation used to explain or predict a system. A model is useful within its assumptions and limits.
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Question
Why should measurements report uncertainty or reasonable precision?
Answer
Every measurement has limits. Reporting more digits than the method supports creates false precision.
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Question
If results match a prediction once, what is the safest conclusion?
Answer
The results support the hypothesis under those conditions. One result does not prove the hypothesis in every setting.
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Question
What is a direct relationship between two variables?
Answer
As one increases, the other tends to increase; as one decreases, the other tends to decrease. The relationship need not be perfectly linear.
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Question
Which variable is usually placed on the x-axis of an experimental graph?
Answer
The independent variable. It is the factor selected or changed by the investigator.
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Question
What does the slope of a straight-line graph represent?
Answer
Change in y divided by change in x. It is the response rate per unit change in the other variable.
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Question
A line rises 12 units in y while x rises 3 units. What is its slope?
Answer
4 units of y per unit of x. Divide 12 by 3.
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Question
What is an inverse relationship?
Answer
As one variable increases, the other tends to decrease. Their product is constant only in a strictly inverse proportion.
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Question
Which variable is usually placed on the y-axis of an experimental graph?
Answer
The dependent variable. It is the measured response.
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Question
What does a plateau on a response graph indicate?
Answer
The measured response has stopped changing much despite further x increases. A limiting factor may have been reached.
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Question
What is interpolation?
Answer
Estimating a value within the range of measured data. It is generally safer than extrapolating beyond that range.
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Question
What pattern suggests no relationship between two plotted variables?
Answer
The response shows no consistent change as the other variable changes. Points may scatter without a trend.
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Question
Before comparing values in a data table, what should you check?
Answer
Headings, units, and conditions. Numbers from different measures or scales cannot be compared directly.
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Question
If 3 samples require 12 mL total, how much is needed for 5 equal samples?
Answer
20 mL. The rate is 4 mL per sample, so multiply by 5.
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Question
How is the arithmetic mean calculated?
Answer
Add all values and divide by the number of values. A large outlier can shift the mean.
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Question
Why is extrapolation uncertain?
Answer
It assumes the observed trend continues outside measured conditions. The relationship may change beyond the data range.
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Question
A culture grows from 20 to 50 cells in 6 hours. What is the average growth rate?
Answer
5 cells per hour. The change is 30 cells divided by 6 hours.
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Question
A measurement rises from 40 to 50. What is the percent increase?
Answer
25%. The increase is 10, and 10 ÷ 40 × 100 = 25%.
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Question
When can the median describe a typical value better than the mean?
Answer
When data are skewed or contain strong outliers. In an ordered set, the median is the middle value for an odd count and the mean of the two middle values for an even count.
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Question
How do quantitative and qualitative data differ?
Answer
Quantitative data are numerical; qualitative data describe categories or qualities. Both can answer scientific questions.
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Question
A response is 2 at dose 1, 4 at dose 2, and 8 at dose 4. If the relationship is linear, what response is predicted at dose 3?
Answer
6. The observed rate is 2 response units per dose unit, so interpolation at dose 3 gives 6.
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Question
How can a graph reveal a nonlinear relationship?
Answer
The points follow a curve rather than a straight line. The rate of change varies across the x-range.
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Question
What is the range of a data set?
Answer
Maximum minus minimum. It describes total spread but ignores the distribution between the endpoints.
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Question
What makes a scientific research question testable?
Answer
It identifies measurable variables or observable outcomes. The needed data must be obtainable.
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Question
In an experiment, what is the independent variable?
Answer
The factor deliberately changed or assigned by the investigator. In a simple one-factor experiment, changing one independent variable helps isolate its effect.
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Question
What should a hypothesis connect?
Answer
A proposed explanation with a measurable outcome. It should lead to a prediction that evidence can challenge.
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Question
What is a controlled variable, or constant?
Answer
A condition kept the same across groups. Holding it constant prevents it from explaining outcome differences.
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Question
What is the purpose of a control group?
Answer
It provides a comparison without the experimental treatment. Differences can then be attributed more confidently to the treatment.
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Question
In an experiment, what is the dependent variable?
Answer
The measured response. It may change because of the independent variable.
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Question
What form can a useful experimental prediction take?
Answer
If the independent variable changes in a stated way, then the dependent variable should respond in a stated way. The reason links it to the hypothesis.
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Question
What does a positive control demonstrate?
Answer
That the setup can produce a known response. If it fails, the test system may be defective.
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Question
Why randomly assign subjects to experimental groups?
Answer
To distribute known and unknown differences more evenly. This reduces selection bias and confounding.
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Question
How can blinding reduce bias?
Answer
It keeps participants, observers, or both unaware of treatment assignments. Expectations are less likely to affect behavior or measurement.
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Question
What is a placebo?
Answer
An inactive treatment designed to resemble the experimental treatment. It helps separate treatment effects from expectation effects.
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Question
What does a negative control demonstrate?
Answer
What happens when the tested cause is absent. An unexpected response may reveal contamination or another source.
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Question
Why does a larger sample often improve a study?
Answer
It reduces the influence of chance variation and supports more stable estimates. It cannot repair a biased sampling method.
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Question
Why repeat trials within an experiment?
Answer
To estimate variability and check consistency. One unusual trial then has less influence.
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Question
Why must an experimental procedure be detailed and standardized?
Answer
So groups are treated consistently and others can reproduce the work. Uncontrolled procedural differences create alternative explanations.
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Question
Why calibrate a measuring instrument before collecting data?
Answer
To compare its readings with a known standard and reduce systematic error. Calibration improves confidence in accuracy.
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Question
What is an operational definition?
Answer
A precise statement of how a variable is measured or manipulated. It turns an abstract concept into a repeatable procedure.
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Question
How does independent replication differ from repeated trials?
Answer
Independent replication repeats a study with independently collected data, often by a different investigator; repeated trials rerun measurements within the original experiment. Replication tests consistency across separate studies.
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Question
Why should raw data be recorded before interpretation?
Answer
It preserves the observations separately from conclusions. Others can check calculations and reasoning.
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Question
What should a scientific conclusion do?
Answer
Answer the research question using the data and acknowledge limits. It should not claim more than the design supports.
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Question
What should happen when data do not support a hypothesis?
Answer
Revise or reject the hypothesis and consider new tests. Data should not be altered to preserve the original idea.
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Question
What is a study limitation?
Answer
A feature that restricts interpretation or generalization. Small samples, short duration, and imperfect measurements are examples.
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Question
Why are ethics part of experimental design?
Answer
Research must protect participants, organisms, and communities while balancing risks and benefits. Consent and humane treatment are key examples.
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Question
How does an observational study differ from an experiment?
Answer
It measures variables without assigning the exposure. It can find associations but usually supports weaker causal conclusions.
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Question
Plants receive 0, 2, or 4 hours of added light, and growth is measured. What is the independent variable?
Answer
Hours of added light. Plant growth is the dependent variable.
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Question
A fertilizer study gives every plant the same water, soil, and temperature. What are these conditions?
Answer
Controlled variables. Keeping them constant isolates the fertilizer's effect.
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Question
A drug group improves more than a control group, but the groups were not randomly assigned. What is the main caution?
Answer
Preexisting group differences could explain some improvement. The result is suggestive, but the design weakens a causal claim.
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ATI TEAS 7 Science Flashcards: A&P, Biology, Chemistry & Scientific Reasoning
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